Posts filed under 'Life of Law'
September 2008 Bar Exams Result
BAR RESULTS (To DOWNLOAD official list, simply CLICK HERE)
1 ABABA Victoria D
2 ABAD Bernard O
3 ABAD Francis Michael C
4 ABADEZA Melissa A
5 ABALOS Christian Noel C
6 ABALOS Joseph Ryan C
7 ABALOS Mcdonald G
8 ABANTE Priscilla Marie T
9 ABARCA Jerome G
10 ABAYA Mark Francis P
11 ABAYON Jerome B
12 ABDULLAH Noor Hafizullah M
13 ABEJARON Arnold C
14 ABELITA Peter Filip S
15 ABELLA Marie Velle P
16 ABENOJAR Lilian C
17 ABESAMIS Ellen V
18 ABO Rolando T
19 ABREA Elton Dick J
20 ABRENICA Angelee Marree A
21 ABUCEJO Joan D
22 ABYADANG Harriet N
23 ACHAS John Albino C
24 ACOSTA Carl De Liz L
25 ADJU Annally T
26 ADMANA Gerlie A
27 ADRIANO Alexander DG
28 ADRIANO Karen J
29 ADVINCULA Ma. Carolina T
30 AFRICA Voltaire B
31 AGAAB Jose Raphael E
32 AGATEP, JR. Orlino D
33 AGGALAO Arnold O
34 AGRAVANTE Evelyn T
35 AGTARAP Florina C
36 AGTARAP Richard M
37 AGUAS Princess Luren D
38 AGUDO Elma Jewelle A
39 AGUILAR Aileen R
40 ALANO Joseph Rod Allan C
41 ALBO Aubrey F
42 ALCANTARA Abraham Joseph B
43 ALCARDE Princess May C
44 ALCOREZA Joden B
45 ALCUAZ Alfonso Ismael A
46 ALEGRE Jacqueline Ann C
47 ALEGRE Marife M
48 ALEJANDRO Henry D
49 ALEJANDRO Johnsen H
50 ALIBANIA, JR. Eliseo C
51 ALICER Arthur Anthony S
52 ALILAM James G
53 ALIPIO, II Abraham C
54 ALISUAG Ma. Lenina C
55 ALLAM Marion P
56 ALMA JOSE Sylvia R
57 ALMALBIS Jelou F
58 ALMARIO Gilbert S
59 ALMARIO Shari-christine S
60 ALMAZAR Michael Barney R
61 ALMERO Rowena Joyce R
62 ALMOETE Martee L
63 ALMOGUERA Hanil B
64 ALMONTE, JR. Bienvenido B
65 ALONZO Timmy Joy S
66 ALPAY Zinia P
67 ALUNDAY Reynold B
68 ALVINA Cynthia L
69 AMBOANG Louilyn N
70 AMEROMACUMBAL Mylene I
71 AMIGABLE, JR. Felizardo D
72 AMIS Kathryn D
73 AMISTAD Christian B
74 AMOD Merxel Mae O
75 AMOR Aileen L
76 AMOR Fernando R
77 AMORA, JR. Lilio J
78 AMPIG Francis Athanasius D
79 AMPONG, III Teodulfo S
80 ANDRES Gilbert T
81 ANDUMANG Archie R
82 ANG Arlon U
83 ANG Juvielet Jeanne A
84 ANGELES Albert Lee G
85 ANGELES Erwin C
86 ANGELES Erwin Rommel S
87 ANIAG Mark Anthony V
88 ANITO Mylene A
89 ANONAT Jerry C
90 ANTERO Richard S
91 ANTIG Pamela Angela U
92 ANTONIO Elizabeth B
93 ANTONIO Hannah Lorraine Y
94 ANTONIO Harold M
95 AOANAN Kleider Rex C
96 APAO, JR. Mariano L
97 APASAN Joseph Ryan C
98 APILADO Louella Xylee T
99 APOLINARIO Charmaine C
100 APUYOD Jesus F
101 AQUENDE Hardy B
102 AQUINO Magnolia P
103 AQUINO Mark M
104 AQUINO Paolo R
105 AQUINO Patrick T
106 ARANAS Melchor Jaemond A
107 ARAULA, II Felix B
108 ARBOLADURA Rhea A
109 ARBOLEDA Lisette M
110 ARCE Cecilia Maria Rosario M
111 ARCE Liwayway D
112 ARCENANOGRA Aiiza Fiel A
113 ARELLANAGUDA Jesusa Loreto A
114 ARGABIOSO Antonio S
115 ARGENIO Kareen May E
116 ARIAS Jolienne Lee D
117 ARIOLA Aimee Riza S
118 ARIOSA Gia L
119 ARITAO, JR. Benjamin E
120 ARNADO Richard M
121 ARQUILLO Ruby B
122 ARTUZ Pearly Sheila F
123 ARZADON Romino G
124 ASENCION Marissa R
125 ASUNCION, III Isaiah O
126 ATAS Richelle L
127 ATENSOR Joseph Brian A
128 ATIENZA Catalino C
129 ATIENZA Katrina Catherine P
130 ATIENZA Leynard B
131 ATIENZA Verdie J
132 ATOS Richelle Mae G
133 AURO Christian V
134 AUTENTICO Ana Michaela N
135 AVELLANO Christine F
136 AVISADO Ethel C
137 AYENG Adelaide Nancy Sybil G
138 AYO Danilo M
139 AYUNGO Theodorick K
140 AZARRAGA Juliet C
141 AÑOVER Paul Vincent W
142 BALAN Orlando A
143 BACARAMAN Nur Jaypha R
144 BACLAY, JR. Oliver P
145 BACLAYO Ruby T
146 BACOLOR Heidi F
147 BACON Edwin M
148 BACONG Jeanie Rose A
149 BAETIONG Joselito M
150 BAGGAYAN Ma. Jonalyn F
151 BAGSIT Liza Flor T
152 BAGUIO Fritz B
153 BAHIAN Rachelle I
154 BAHJIN, II Jainal Abidin Y
155 BAI Muhlis S
156 BAJENIO Webb I
157 BALANGCOD Christobal J
158 BALANGITAN Mark Jeff W
159 BALANON Maxlen C
160 BALBOA Conrada A
161 BALDOVINO Renoir O
162 BALLARAN Armi L
163 BALLINAN John Dale A
164 BALMEO Trinidad V
165 BALTAR Jonathan Z
166 BALTAZAR Jay Francis P
167 BALTAZAR Ma. Francesca Q
168 BANAGUI Leah B
169 BANALAGAY Harold Howell D
170 BANDONELL Marinel F
171 BANIQUED Marigel M
172 BANSON, JR. Ceferino W
173 BANTASAN Joel C
174 BANZON Melissa Suzette L
175 BAQUIRAN Monalyn Ann L
176 BARATA Erwin N
177 BARCENAS Ligaya Victoria U
178 BARILLEGUE Josefina M
179 BARIN Anna Gayle T
180 BARINPRIETO Aiza Marie M
181 BARRIOS, III Isidro B
182 BARTOLOME Harold Ian V
183 BARTOLOME Prescila D
184 BARTOLOME Vincent Vos R
185 BARTOLOME, JR. David S
186 BARTOLOME, JR. Gaudencio P
187 BASA Fernando C
188 BASANES Karla Kristine L
189 BASCO Diana Joyce N
190 BASILGO Gembeth G
191 BATAC Regina C
192 BATALLA Maria Phenny Joan G
193 BATE Nover M
194 BATHAN Maricris E
195 BATU Kasarinlan S
196 BAUTISTA Cliff John C
197 BAYOTAS Michael Darwin M
198 BAYSAC Dianna Lynne S
199 BAÑAGA Myra Janina P
200 BAÑEZ Emerson S
201 BEJA Ma. Jela Teresa S
202 BELARMINRUMA Brenda R
203 BELEN Vernon A
204 BELENA Persephone Meir B
205 BELLEZA John M
206 BELMES Mae Richelle B
207 BELMONTE Mary Elizabeth (marybee) M
208 BERABARAOIDAN Catherin B
209 BERIANA Charlene A
210 BERMEJO Ma. Teresa Ana V
211 BERMEJO Maricel F
212 BERNABE, II Regina V
213 BERNALES, JR. Marcial P
214 BERNARDINO Aida S
215 BERNARDINBAÑEZ Noralyn C
216 BERON Jay Cesar I
217 BESSAT Madeleine A
218 BIBAL Joanne Mae A
219 BIGOL Maria Victoria B
220 BILONGILOT Joana Q
221 BIRON Jose Noe James S
222 BONDAD, JR. Rodolfo A
223 BONGAR Kharen Lee P
224 BONGHANOY Liewellyn F
225 BORJA Haidee O
226 BORJA Jacqueline Q
227 BORRA Katrina P
228 BRACIA M. Melvin B
229 BRAGADO Joel Emilio F
230 BRAGAT Maria Lourdes C
231 BREGALA Dennis B
232 BRILLANTES Fel Lester G
233 BRINGAS Catherine S
234 BRION Francis C
235 BRIONES Estrellita B
236 BROCALES Christopher Redeemson R
237 BROTONEL Jo Katrina V
238 BRUAN, JR. Cesario B
239 BUBAN Josephine M
240 BUENA Delbert Clifford V
241 BUENDIA Cristina B
242 BUENO Cheryl F
243 BUGAY Vicente Fidel C
244 BUGAOAN Eric Vincent H
245 BUGHAO Melvin Cydrick M
246 BUHAIN Camille R
247 BUNDOC Jacqueline C
248 BUNGABONG Kurt Adolph C
249 BURDACASTRO Arlie R
250 BURDEOS Sherry Joy O
251 BURGOS Ma. Lourdes S
252 BUSI Barrytone A
253 CABADING Marilex L
254 CABALI Pearl Grace G
255 CABALLERO Maynard G
256 CABANGON Ley A
257 CABANILLA Cris Francis O
258 CABANSAG Glynis Lyn R
259 CABIC Ellen Aster B
260 CABOTEJA, JR. Romeo O
261 CABRERA Cherrie Mae S
262 CABRERA Maria Christine C
263 CABRIDO Candice Elizabeth A
264 CACATIABARANGAN Freniza Joy D
265 CACAYURAN Sheryll P
266 CACCAFIGUEROA Rowena B
267 CACHAPERO Marty P
268 CACHO Arlene Valerie G
269 CADIOGAN, JR. Randolph C
270 CAINTO Angela Faith L
271 CAINTO Leo V
272 CAJIGAL Wilbur R
273 CAJILIG Geraldine A
274 CALAGUI Eric-john S
275 CALALMACAPAGAL Vivian B
276 CALAMBA Winsor B
277 CALATRAVA Ira R
278 CALDE Nimreh L
279 CALDE Roland P
280 CALINISAN Rafael Vicente R
281 CALPO Ma. Lourdes Gaye T
282 CAMACHO Alva C
283 CAMANDERGURO Kristine M
284 CAMARA Mark Darwin A
285 CAMPANER Francisco M
286 CANDELARIA Desiree G
287 CANIBA May A
288 CANTALEJO John Dale A
289 CANTIL Jason A
290 CANTIMBUHAN Veron Joy J
291 CAPARAS Melanie C
292 CAPINPIN Michael Joseph C
293 CAPUSEN Dimsey J
294 CAPUYAN Julifaith C
295 CARDENAS Maria Josella Teresa M
296 CARILLO Mae Jill B
297 CARINGAL Carlos M
298 CARINGAL Glenda Leah A
299 CARITOS Rona Ann V
300 CARIÑO Arbin Omar P
301 CARIÑO Marlon M
302 CARLOS Roy E
303 CARMONA Sheila Minnelli V
304 CASTASUS Lee Guian Paulo O
305 CASTIL Rico C
306 CASTILLEJO Raymond Christle N
307 CASTILLO Eleazar E
308 CASTILLO Javerick G
309 CASTILLO Ma. Christina G
310 CASTILLO Paul Cornelius T
311 CASTILLO, JR. Emmanuel F
312 CASTRO Allan R
313 CASTRO Carmencita D
314 CASTRO Cyril Alfred S
315 CASTRO Elvira Joselle R
316 CASTRO Jose Romulo L
317 CASTRO Lorelei A
318 CASTRO Rohail R
319 CATALO Janice C
320 CATAPANG Dyan Kristi C
321 CATAPANROSALES Luzviminda C
322 CATIBAYAN Luis Manuel M
323 CATRE Mary Christine Charisse G
324 CATRE, JR. Noel Christian G
325 CAUILAN Joey L
326 CAUNAN Patricia Yvonne M
327 CAYANGA Edelisa May M
328 CAZEÑAS Mary Dezerie D
329 CAÑAL Renato E
330 CAÑAMO Peter B
331 CAÑEDO Jose Ritche O
332 CAÑEDO, JR. Florenz O
333 CAÑETE Ferdinand C
334 CAÑO Maria Janice B
335 CECILIO, JR. Uldarico P
336 CEDEÑO Al Joseph V
337 CENIZA Yvonne C
338 CENTENO Joseph Darren C
339 CEREZO Jimbert A
340 CERVANTES Leonardo Roy A
341 CHAN Marvin A
342 CHAN Phil Ivan A
343 CHANECO Maria Cecilia V
344 CHANYUNGCO Caleen T
345 CHAAYAN Lalaine Y
346 CHAVEZ, JR. Raul B
347 CHAVEBERNARDO Anunsacion P
348 CHING Betha Fe A
349 CHIONG Kristine Vanessa T
350 CHOI Christina T
351 CHONG Juan Ruffo D
352 CHUA Joan A
353 CHUA Jon Anton Daryl Y
354 CHUA Marites L
355 CHUA Maximilian
356 CHUA CHENG Perfecto Adelfo C
357 CIRILO Kristine Ria N
358 CLARIN Armando T
359 CLARINO Madonna N
360 CLEMENCIO Djhoana Gene A
361 CLEMENTE Katrina O
362 CLOMA Melissa D
363 CO Janice L
364 COBSEN Martinelli R
365 COLES Christopher R
366 COLINIO, JR. Ricardo A
367 COLLANTES King George Leandro Antonio V
368 COMAFAY, JR. Errol B
369 COMAHIG Niño Rey P
370 CONDEZ Christina Faye M
371 CONDEZ Dustin Jay A
372 CONDOR Glenn D
373 CONSEBIT Norlyn P
374 CONSTANTINO Alvin Joseph G
375 CONSTANTINO Bernie Francis B
376 CONSTANTINO Cherry Mae M
377 CONSTANTINO Placido S
378 CONTRERAS Monaliza G
379 CORGOS Lenon Jay A
380 CORNEL Bernadette O
381 CORPUZ Christine C
382 CORPUZ Cynthia C
383 CORTES Santos Anthony O
384 COSTELO Arnold C
385 COTIAMCO Casiano Anthony G
386 CRESPO Alesandro G
387 CRISTOBAL Kristan Carlos M
388 CRUZ Agatha Paula A
389 CRUZ Anthony Ronar B
390 CRUZ Carmenez B
391 CRUZ Ferdinand O
392 CRUZ Karl Cornelio A
393 CRUZ, JR. Rene P
394 CRUMENDOZA Karen Kaye C
395 CU Migñon Chrix D
396 CUA Mary Kimberly G
397 CUBERO John Paul B
398 CUEVAS Brian James C
399 CUGAL Arnold V
400 CUIZON Cyril Bryan D
401 CULANCULAN Ma. Cherryl M
402 CUMITAG Gaius P
403 CURAZA Maria Aurora R
404 CUSTODIO Niersen C
405 CUÑADA Jp Anthony D
406 CUÑANO Paul Michael J
407 DAAYATA Jessamine M
408 DABU Maria Helen T
409 DACLAN Eller Roel I
410 DACQUEL Denny A
411 DAGARAGA Roschelle B
412 DALANAO Heidiliza G
413 DALANGIN, JR. Bart Q
414 DALLO Zorayda R
415 DANAO Catherine S
416 DANLALUIG Razel A
417 DANO Richard M
418 DATOON Teresita U
419 DAVID Kristine Kay S
420 DAVID Timothy J
421 DAYAG Wilhelmina Mojet S
422 DE CASTRO Thomas John Thaddeus F
423 DE GUZMAN Rico J
424 DE GUZMAN, III Ricardo C
425 DE JESUS Michael Ken R
426 DE JUAHERMOSO Maribeth L
427 DE LA CRUZ Kareen P
428 DE LARA Joel M
429 DE LEON Cyril F
430 DE LEON May Angeli G
431 DE LEON, JR. Hernan Ed Noel L
432 DE LOS SANTOS, JR. Ricardo C
433 DE LUNA Sherwin M
434 DE PERALTA Christian G
435 DE VERA Celina S
436 DE VEYRA Juan Carlos J
437 DEFANTE Divi Bless G
438 DEL SOCORRO Lloyd Ismael O
439 DELA CHICA Jose Jay E
440 DELA CRUZ Allen S
441 DELA CRUZ Donna Cher A
442 DELA CRUZ Eric B
443 DELA CRUZ John Gerald B
444 DELA CRUZ June Abigail S
445 DELA CRUZ Marie Francesca Luz O
446 DELA PAZ Carmela T
447 DELA PEÑA Aldin P
448 DELA RAMA Myra P
449 DELFIN Jeremy Diosana
450 DELGADO Julius Gregory B
451 DELOS REYES Grace Maria Theresa Bambi A
452 DELOS SANTOS Mar Angelo G
453 DEMETILLO Jasmin M
454 DERIGAY Rachel F
455 DIANO Melanie Rita B
456 DICIANO Rachel I
457 DIDAL Janice M
458 DIMACULANGAN Karen L
459 DIMAISIP Joyce Jazmin G
460 DIMANLIG Nicole Ava S
461 DINO Jan Paulo DL
462 DIONISIO Mary Jaynard P
463 DITAN Maria Cristina A
464 DIVINAGRACIA Angiebel A
465 DIVINO Markson E
466 DIÑO Dominic A
467 DOCDOCIL Edith A
468 DOMINGO Bernard Joseph E
469 DOMINGO Johnson V
470 DOMINGO Joyce Felisa B
471 DOMINGO Maria Paula B
472 DOMINGUEZ Ina Alexandra A
473 DOMINO Julie Ann B
474 DORIA Arnold V
475 DUEÑAS Niña Genoveva D
476 DUNGCA Joy F
477 DURAN Alain Zam C
478 DURAN Marie Christine A
479 DURANO Mylene M
480 DY Denise S
481 DY Mark Robert A
482 DYKIMCHING Eric T
483 EBREO Madonna L
484 EDUARTE, JR. Henedino Joseph P
485 ELANG Muiz-za M
486 ELE Maria Felicitas V
487 ELOT Beda Joy B
488 ENOPIA Frederick A
489 ENTILA Julius C
490 ERNPUENTENEGRA Ma. Gay A
491 ESCAUSO Ronald C
492 ESCOLANO Ida Marie V
493 ESGUERRA Roman S
494 ESPEJBIAG Angela Patrice A
495 ESPELA Melan M
496 ESPINELI Karen Jill M
497 ESPINO Alain Paul B
498 ESPINOSA Mark B
499 ESPIRITU Kristine Nicole M
500 ESPONILLA Neil P
501 ESQUEJO Hilda L
502 ESQUIVIAS Julius Thomas A
503 ESTOCAPIO Rene C
504 ESTOLAS May Angeli M
505 ESTRELLA Paula Sophia G
506 EUSTAQUIO Magnolia D
507 EVANGELISTA Rafael A
508 FABIAN Marie P
509 FABILLAN Alexanderwerk E
510 FAJARDO Jean S
511 FAMOR Orwin Lloyd M
512 FARIÑAS Cherry Dane A
513 FAURILLO Michelle A
514 FAVIS Maria Cristina D
515 FAVORITO Meliza F
516 FELICIANO Dennis P
517 FELIPE Jennifer D
518 FERNANDEZ Ennoh Chentis R
519 FERNANDEZ Maricel D
520 FERNANDEZ Mc Jill Bryant T
521 FERNANDEZ Suzie A
522 FERNANDEZ, IV Cristobal R
523 FERRER Maricris S
524 FERROLINO Concepcion Zeny E
525 FERROLINO Ted M
526 FLORES Aldwin Z
527 FLORES Ellen Grace R
528 FLORES Pedrito B
529 FLORES Sherwin D
530 FLORIA Joselea Y
531 FOZ Justice Anthony A
532 FRANCISCO Mariel L
533 FRANCISCO, JR. Philomel D
534 FRANCO Karin-lei N
535 FRISNEDI April Joy L
536 FUENTEBELLA Felix William B
537 FUENTES Ruth C
538 FULLOGAN Kathy Luisa G
539 FURIGAY Mark Leo P
540 GABIHAN Dennis R
541 GABOR Allan Jae V
542 GABRIEL Daisy Ann S
543 GABRIEL Sherry Anne C
544 GACUTAN Sheila C
545 GAELA Frederick C
546 GALANG Emmanuel L
547 GALANTO Mary Anne B
548 GALAPON Martin C
549 GALVAN Mark J
550 GALVEZ Hernando C
551 GALVEZ Mechelee Kieth F
552 GAMBOA Joan Lou P
553 GANA Joanna Kristine S
554 GAPATAN Jasmine Ann B
555 GARCIA Grace P
556 GARCIA Jesse James A
557 GARCIA Kerwyn D
558 GARCIA Marc Jeremiah R
559 GARCIA Maria Khristina Z
560 GARCIA Marisa P
561 GARCIA Mark Evarra M
562 GARCIA Michael P
563 GARCIGABRIEL Aura Rizza A
564 GARRUCHO Gretchen Y
565 GATDULA Eddielyn L
566 GATURIAN Lalaine T
567 GAVAS, JR. Ernesto R
568 GAYA Jerico G
569 GAYAGAY Romelyn B
570 GEALON Rey M
571 GEBILAGUIN Shiela D
572 GELBOLINGO Juliemie B
573 GENUINO Erwin F
574 GEOCANIGA Rommel T
575 GERMAN Dainelee V
576 GIANAN, JR. Lino A
577 GIGA Marlou C
578 GIGANTONCADIZ Shemidah
579 GO Abigail V
580 GO Erdelyne C
581 GO Ormil D
582 GOLEZ Sylvester P
583 GOMEZ Ira Jordana Margrethe M
584 GOMEZ Jacqueline Ann Marie O
585 GOMEZ Mark Louie L
586 GOMEZ Michael Geronimo R
587 GOMEZ Patricia Isabel O
588 GOMINTONG Jemarose G
589 GONZALES Ivy C
590 GONZALES Lifrendo M
591 GONZALES, JR. Cesario G
592 GONZALEZ Archimedes B
593 GONZALEZ Rosario Carmela B
594 GORRES Angelina Luisa V
595 GRANDE Charlemagne Angelo C
596 GREGORIO Anah T
597 GREGORIO Jenneth M
598 GRIMALDO Ivy Joy R
599 GUAN Ina Claire B
600 GUARNES, JR. Felix G
601 GUAYCO Gideon Rey V
602 GUERRERO Alejandro Epifanio D
603 GUERRERO Feliz Marie M
604 GUERRERO Kathleen Phyllis P
605 GUEVARRA Melanie O
606 GUEVARRA Rexford D
607 GUMABON Joseph Ray P
608 GUMATAY, JR. Efren G
609 GUMBAO Ethyl Fe T
610 GUNGON Flora Fe B
611 GUYO Muamar A
612 HAMOY Owlette Christine Jill D
613 HARON Noharddin M
614 HASSAN Najira S
615 HASSIMAN Jalsidrie T
616 HERNANDEZ Elaine May P
617 HERNANDEZ Helen Grace S
618 HERNANDEZ Robert A
619 HERNANDEZ Rosette M
620 HERNANE Herbert B
621 HERRERA Catherine N
622 HIPOLITO Maria Bienvenida Angelica D
623 HORCASITAS Harold M
624 HUECAS Roy V
625 IDAGBELINO Irma Gay G
626 IGNACIO Maria Theresa Distajo
627 ILAGAN, IV Ruben R
628 ILUSTRISIMO Beverly F
629 INIHAO Reymund G
630 INOCENCIO, JR. Miguel C
631 ISIDORO Augusto Eric C
632 ISRAEL Johnny W
633 ISRAEL Marilyn M
634 JACOB Jihan A
635 JALA Majesty Eve L
636 JAM Madeline Arezu T
637 JAMBANGAN Bambeth Mahal C
638 JARA Thacher C
639 JARAMILLA Gilbert M
640 JAVIER Doris C
641 JAVIER Kirby G
642 JAVIER Nesly Joy S
643 JAVILLAGUILA Lilibeth M
644 JAYSON Renelyn B
645 JIMENEZ Vicente S
646 JONES Ramon Jose E
647 JOSOL Mary Kathleen C
648 JOVEN Melissa Genevieve B
649 JUAN Eric R
650 JUMUAD Harold A
651 JURADO Leonard Peejay V
652 JURILLA Keenan Rhys Y
653 JUSAY Kenneth J
654 KAKIHARA Jiro G
655 KALIM Abdul Rashid P
656 KAPALAC Judemar V
657 KIMAYONG Zozimo P
658 KINTANAR Maria Ysidra May Y
659 LABINE Annie Rose L
660 LABRADOR Felmanda C
661 LABRIAGA Ma. Jessette G
662 LACSON Rosstum C
663 LADERA, IV Antonio V
664 LADORES Ivan Mark S
665 LAGAN Rachel Lee V
666 LAGUDAS, JR. Eulogio L
667 LAGULA Kristina V
668 LAGUNZAD Sam Dominic T
669 LAJA Leah Easter P
670 LALUNA Ma. Isabel Z
671 LAMBO Ma. Celeste R
672 LAMPACAN Andres Arnold W
673 LAO Kristyn Jean R
674 LAOLAO, JR. Antonio L
675 LARA Maria Leah R
676 LARDIZABAL Judy A
677 LARGO Nelson V
678 LARGOZA Salvador Gregorio L
679 LARIBA Ma. Gloria Alphine S
680 LARIOSA Jessie A
681 LASACUMAGUN Mari-grace C
682 LAURESTE Florida L
683 LAURON Manuel Patrick K
684 LAYGO Jennifer E
685 LAZARITO Khristine Kay M
686 LEDESMA Cheryl Marie V
687 LEE Janice C
688 LEE Kelvin Lester K
689 LEE Marjorie B
690 LEGASPI Bellatrix O
691 LEGASPI Joan Michelle M
692 LEUNG Florendo L
693 LEYCANO Andrea B
694 LEYVA Eunika Lesli R
695 LIANGCO Daryl G
696 LICERA Geony P
697 LICERALDE Ma. Elizabeth L
698 LICO Marisse Gay G
699 LIGMAYO Paul D
700 LIM Bryan S
701 LIM Laarni Victoria B
702 LIM Lovely E
703 LIMBING Cheryl T
704 LINCUNA Duke Ramil P
705 LLANES Lawrence Q
706 LOCAYLOCAY Amife Joan C
707 LOCSIN Ryan A
708 LOFRANCO Vicar Loureen G
709 LOGRONIO Jennie Ann T
710 LOPEZ Dhonadette L
711 LOPEZ Michael Angelo O
712 LOPEORO Corazon Natividad D
713 LORENZO Edmond B
714 LORENZO Neil E
715 LUARDO, JR. Edgardo B
716 LUCERO Rhoan G
717 LUCILA, II Roberto Rafael N
718 LUIS Benjamin S
719 LUMACTOD Joseph Eric C
720 LUMASATORREGOSA Paz L
721 LUMEREZ, JR. Cresente B
722 LYNN Jacques S
723 MABANES April Rose S
724 MACABANDO Samina S
725 MACABAYA Beryl Concepcion O
726 MACAPAGAL Ferdinand L
727 MACAPAGAL Michael T
728 MACAPAGAL Paolo P
729 MACARUBBO Epifania B
730 MACATANGAY Augusto Leon A
731 MACATANGAY Michael Remir H
732 MACAYRA Marianne M
733 MACEREN Lyndon A
734 MACOY Cristine L
735 MACTAL Walter L
736 MADRILEJO Leonides M
737 MAGISTRADO Luis D
738 MAGNABE Kirk Andrew T
739 MAGSOLING Carl A
740 MAGTIBAY Medwin B
741 MAGTUBO Rey E
742 MAHAWAN Benison M
743 MAHINAY Girlie C
744 MAHIPUS Diosdado Angelo Junior R
745 MALABAG Maria Rhodora A
746 MALABANAN Karen M
747 MALANDAC Clariza P
748 MALAPOTE Paul Edgar F
749 MALAYA Milagros Evans I
750 MALIBIRAN Bernard Joseph B
751 MALIGAYA Greg Zacarias M
752 MALLARI Katrina Bianca H
753 MAMBA Maria Rosario S
754 MANABILANG Haroun Bin Omar E
755 MANALASTAS Dennis Gerard F
756 MANALAYSAY Andrea Celene M
757 MANALAYSAY Anna Karin F
758 MANALIGOD Ismael T
759 MANALO Paul Erik D
760 MANANGHAYA Maria Melinda S
761 MANANZAN Monica J
762 MANAOG Mary Hazel C
763 MANAOIS Fely Reina V
764 MANCENIDO Uella Vida V
765 MANGENTE Myra S
766 MANGUBAT Rhea M
767 MANLANGIT Angelo D
768 MANONGAS Queen Ann D
769 MANSILUNGAN Donna D
770 MANTE, JR. Urbano T
771 MANUBAG Amiel Joaquin E
772 MARABE Ridgway C
773 MARAON Leah B
774 MARAPAO Lord V R
775 MARASIGAN Jennifer M
776 MARASIGAN Nerissa L
777 MARGARICO Paul Andre R
778 MARGATE Karl Anthony R
779 MARIANITO Ronel A
780 MARIANO Emmanuel M
781 MARQUEZ Joyce Marie B
782 MARQUIÑO John Mark C
783 MARTELINO Jobert M
784 MARTHO Edgar S
785 MARTIN Karl Francis S
786 MARTIN Nilo N
787 MARTINEZ Amelia Cristina V
788 MARTIZANO Leah T
789 MARZAN Antonio F
790 MARZO Lailani C
791 MASACAL Anwar U
792 MATA, II Reynold DG
793 MATEO Eleanor R
794 MATIAS Dexter G
795 MATILLANO Lovely Concepcion C
796 MAURICIO Paul Vincent R
797 MAXIMO Dinah P
798 MAÑALAC Maria Elizabeth S
799 MEDIANARENASA Jenlyn B
800 MEDRANO Jayferson F
801 MEER Rafael Antonio P
802 MENDOZA Claudie M
803 MENDOZA Exzon B
804 MENDOZA Gerald Al P
805 MENDOZA Justin Christopher C
806 MENDOZA Melinda Cielo C
807 MENDOZA Sunshine D
808 MENDOZA Winston Aris M
809 MENESES Hermielita M
810 MENOR Benjie Benjamin A
811 MENOR Dianna Kathrina C
812 MERCADO Charade B
813 MERCADO Jihan Carla T
814 MESINA Maria Merle M
815 MICIANO Renee Lynn C
816 MIGUEL Genalyn N
817 MILITANTE Karen Leslie N
818 MILLAN Sharon B
819 MIRANDA Romina M
820 MISA John Paul Louis D
821 MISON Rafael Jaime A
822 MOISES Mary Grace D
823 MOLAS Karen Lisette T
824 MOLDEZ Mary Glenn T
825 MOLINA Christian Dawn G
826 MON Maricar F
827 MONJARDIN Marc Lee N
828 MONSALUD Kristin Ayn D
829 MONTEALEGRE Cheryll Grace H
830 MONTEALTO Stahrl Khristine G
831 MONTECER Marie Concepcion A
832 MONTESCLAROS Marius T
833 MONTINO Raul R
834 MONTON, JR. Higino A
835 MORADA Joyce Marie Antoinette L
836 MORALEDA Karla Monica S
837 MORALES April Raine B
838 MORALES Reggie E
839 MORALLOOMAR Maria Laarni N
840 MORANDO Jovit R
841 MORCILLA Rea L
842 MOSQUEDA Carmela V
843 MOTRIL Helen Grace A
844 NACARIO Jupiter V
845 NADELA, JR. Raul A
846 NAMALATA Joeffrey D
847 NARAG, JR. Mario Atanasio P
848 NARAWI Jullie Mael M
849 NASDOMAN Johnson P
850 NATINFALALIMPA Kristin Marie L
851 NATIVIDAD Christian D
852 NATIVIDAD Maria Cecilia G
853 NAVARRO Ma. Cristina T
854 NEBRIJA Michael V
855 NEMENZO Ann Marie L
856 NEPOMUCENO Alex B
857 NEPOMUCENO Ann Sophie M
858 NERI Mark Peter G
859 NERO Ma. Josenia A
860 NGAMIOTEN Many S
861 NGO Tom Jayson O
862 NICOLAS Kristian A
863 NICOLAS Menilba M
864 NILLO Aquino Martin V
865 NIONES John Paul D
866 NOCETE Randy F
867 NOCHE Kristen G
868 NODQUE Vida Grace Z
869 NOGOY Ivy Grace B
870 NOLASCO Charisma I
871 NOLASCO Leonid C
872 NOLASCO, JR. Ramon C
873 NUEVO Shirley O
874 NUÑEZ Victor Maria D
875 OBIAL Florence Ed T
876 OBTINALLA, JR. Simeon C
877 OBUS Jose Julius P
878 OCAMPO Francis Louie U
879 OCAMPO Nancy M
880 OCAMPO Rory Jorge L
881 OCANG Jeffrey James G
882 OCHE Jonathan S
883 OCHOSARMIENTO Faustina Victoria E
884 OLARTE Rosemarie T
885 OLIDAN Maria Karen S
886 OLIVAR Carlo U
887 OMADTO Jeffrey P
888 ONDOY, JR. Fermin D
889 ONG Cezar S
890 ONGKIKO Emil Bien F
891 ONGSIAPCO Carmela S
892 ONIA, JR. Modesto F
893 ONTALAN Frances Mae Cherryl K
894 ORDAS Nathalia V
895 ORENCIO Donna O
896 OROLA Christopher George L
897 OROPILLA Majellyn N
898 ORTEGA Luz Matilde Niña Dorotea T
899 ORTIZ Ianela Carla M
900 ORTIZ Ruel A
901 OSORIO Fair Lady T
902 OVALLES Franchesca T
903 OÑATE Ronald G
904 PABALAN Analyn T
905 PACIO Maricar P
906 PACOLI Marco Antonio G
907 PACURIBOT Jennifer C
908 PADAYAO Renchi May M
909 PADERANGA, JR. Goering George A
910 PADILLA Jennifer G
911 PAGHACIAN Chiqui H
912 PAGKATIPUNAN Joel V
913 PAGLINAWAN Al F
914 PAGLINAWAN George Ahmed G
915 PAGTAKHAN June Ann R
916 PAGUICAN Adrian D
917 PAGULAYAN Amorsito B
918 PAGULAYAN Domiciano A
919 PAGUNTALAN Mark Geoffrey P
920 PAHUGOTOLEDO Anatrinel T
921 PALABRICA Gladys Pearl T
922 PALAGUARINO Dioanne B
923 PALILEO Anya M
924 PALISOC Marianne R
925 PALMA Richard Alfred N
926 PALMES Jacqueline H
927 PALOMO Alaine Arnolf A
928 PAMFILO Floralie M
929 PAMONAG Ronilo L
930 PANCHO Frela S
931 PANEPOTUTAN Janeth O
932 PANGANIBAN Jefren P
933 PANGAPALAN Glen A
934 PANGHULAN Garry A
935 PANGILINAN Erlyn Aurea T
936 PANIS Rhuel D
937 PAQUEO Alwen M
938 PARADERGUZMAN Katharine Freida B
939 PARAOAN Karl Patrick N
940 PARAÑAL Marveluna A
941 PARDIAN, JR. Joseph L
942 PAREJA Randy M
943 PAROJINOG Gemma F
944 PASCUA Charity L
945 PASCUA Ramar Niel V
946 PASCUA Raymond Joseph D
947 PASCUAL Rigor R
948 PASTELERO Miguel Antonio B
949 PASTORES Stella Angela G
950 PATAJO Jose Paolo A
951 PATRIARCA Richard P
952 PAYLIP Rosevee R
953 PEGARIDO Erlyn M
954 PELANDOC Rico S
955 PELAYO Virgie Lynn O
956 PERALTA Arjay N
957 PERANG Dennis C
958 PEREZ Gene Vincent G
959 PEREZ Joseph Brian T
960 PEREZ Ma. Kathryn Joy Q
961 PERILLO Patrick Simon S
962 PESCADOR Jeremy L
963 PESTAÑO Rose Mae F
964 PEÑALOSA Wilfred Ramon M
965 PHUA Marc Achilles M
966 PICHAY Jane Laarni O
967 PILLADO Noreen A
968 PINEDA Cristina Mia S
969 POBLETE Jonathan Sixto M
970 POBRE Christopher H
971 POLITICO Jeicqpoi N
972 PONFERRADA Regidor A
973 PONSARAN Joy Marie B
974 PONSARAN Raizuli A
975 PONTANAL Alpha Carole O
976 PONTEJOS Fiona G
977 PONTIOSO Rhea Mae A
978 PRADO Crystal I
979 PROSIANOS Myrtle B
980 PUNG Janelyn S
981 PUASO Garry Franco C
982 PUGOY Roland Jun S
983 PULMA Dionne E
984 PUNO Charles Michael T
985 PURUEL Rojane M
986 PUZON David Julian G
987 PUZON Kaythreene Eunice G
988 QUAN Ryan Jeremiah D
989 QUE Nanette A
990 QUERRER Janice S
991 QUEZON Don-vic P
992 QUIDATO Sherwin Paul E
993 QUILENTE Mary Grace C
994 QUIMPO Maria Kristine A
995 QUINAGAN Cristina Mae G
996 QUINTANA Rizza R
997 QUIRINABALOS Sylvia Maria Anna P
998 QUITAIN Elizabeth F
999 QUITAIN Katherine F
1000 QUIZO Mary Therese P
1001 RABAGO Rey S
1002 RABORAR Eden R
1003 RACHO Melanie V
1004 RADJAIE Tareeq Yahya Timhar A
1005 RAFAL Chris A
1006 RAGASA Jerleah Remedios B
1007 RAGAY Mera Jane C
1008 RAIMUNDO Rhudilyn April B
1009 RAMIREZ Leslie B
1010 RAMIREZ Shaina Anella B
1011 RAMOS Anna Lorem R
1012 RAMOS Gemma Lou P
1013 RAMOS Ginalyn Y
1014 RAMOS Patrick T
1015 RAMOS, III Primo A
1016 RANARA Lilibeth R
1017 RANCES Domnina T
1018 RANCES Esther Rose N
1019 RAPISTA Judy Marie E
1020 RAYMUNDO Vanessa C
1021 RAZON Judy B
1022 RECINTO Alex G
1023 RECIO Marichelle B
1024 RECTA Gracea Hephzibah R
1025 REFAZO Mynoa M
1026 REFE Analyn E
1027 REGIS April Love C
1028 REMIGIO, JR. Glenn A
1029 REMULLA Giselle B
1030 RENEGADO Renato C
1031 RENOMERON Timm B
1032 RESURRECCION Maria Greta R
1033 REUYADABON Joyous S
1034 REVILLA, JR. Quirino P
1035 REYES Antoinette E
1036 REYES Irene Patricia N
1037 REYES John Adelbert L
1038 REYES Johnson G
1039 REYES Kristine Mari I
1040 REYES Mark A
1041 REYES Ron Winston A
1042 REYES Valerie Jill S
1043 RIBAS James Paul J
1044 RICAFORT Evita Mariz M
1045 RICO Ellen S
1046 RIVAMONTE Ryan B
1047 RIVAS Polaris Grace H
1048 RIVERA Augustine A
1049 RIVERA Francinina Gracia I
1050 RIVERA Joy S
1051 RIVERESTRELLA Jaycee R
1052 ROBILLO Ernesto Raphael V
1053 ROBLES Frederick Joe N
1054 RODRIGO, III Romeo G
1055 RODRIGUEZ Karen Joyce D
1056 RODRIGUEZ Niño A
1057 RODRIGUEZ Renel Joseph T
1058 RONGO Marcelino C
1059 ROQUE Anna Kristina D
1060 ROQUE Nelson Silvestre
1061 ROSALES Juvy Grace E
1062 ROSARIO Albert R
1063 ROSARIO Lotis P
1064 ROSELLO Jalika Mae F
1065 ROVERO, JR. Vicente F
1066 ROXAS Chino Paolo Z
1067 ROXAS Johndy B
1068 ROXAS Rea M
1069 RUANTO Chris Paolo R
1070 RUBENECIA Vic Allan E
1071 RUBIO Carl Andrew M
1072 RUIZ Ariel N
1073 RUIZ Cholyn Mae M
1074 RUIZ Jose Meno C
1075 SABARRE Rino E
1076 SABARRINFANTE Rosario E
1077 SABERON Paul Richard A
1078 SABIO Fides Angeli G
1079 SADANG Felton C
1080 SADIA Francisco F
1081 SAGA Alvin L
1082 SAGAUINIT Kenneth C
1083 SAGMON Ingrid P
1084 SAGPAEY Jake A
1085 SAHIRON Lilian I
1086 SAIDDI Pherham S
1087 SAJILI Aquino J
1088 SAKANDAL Al-kadam A
1089 SAKKAM Eric Ismael P
1090 SALA Mashur S
1091 SALADAGA Romeo A
1092 SALAZAR Armida B
1093 SALAZAR Didith A
1094 SALAZAR Doris Sharry P
1095 SALAZAR Johnsen A
1096 SALAZAR Roberto A
1097 SALCEDO Karl Andre G
1098 SALE Jenny U
1099 SALEM Ephraim Garnet M
1100 SALIENTE Jacqueline Kate T
1101 SALONGA Christianne Grace F
1102 SALUD Joseph B
1103 SALVA Jocelyn T
1104 SALVE Allan O
1105 SALVO Ariel C
1106 SAMONTE Aren Marie H
1107 SAMPIOR Jorrey T
1108 SAMSON Benjamin R
1109 SAN JOSE Aiza Katrina L
1110 SANCHEZ Bheejhay D
1111 SANCHEZ, II Jay Karel P
1112 SANTIAGO Genesi M
1113 SANTIAGO James A
1114 SANTIAGO Jay Patrick R
1115 SANTIAGO Joann Norpeth M
1116 SANTIAGO Michael M
1117 SANTOS Jhon V
1118 SANTOS Ma. Angelica M
1119 SANTOS Melissa A
1120 SANTOS Michelle Sharon Clara C
1121 SANTOS Phillip Charles G
1122 SANTOS Regina Azucena G
1123 SAQUETON Maria Cresenciana M
1124 SAQUING Sheryl B
1125 SARENAS Jason Kyle M
1126 SARMIENTO Ramon Abraham A
1127 SARNO Michael Angelo C
1128 SATURNINO Charles Ian O
1129 SAYAO Rosemarie B
1130 SECILLANO Jefferson C
1131 SEE Mary Kimberlie C
1132 SEGURA Richelle R
1133 SELPATEN Rodante C
1134 SEMA Omar Yasser C
1135 SENO Andrei P
1136 SERRANO Edward Robinson P
1137 SERRANO Juanito D
1138 SESE John Martin H
1139 SETIAS Lorevi Grace C
1140 SEVA Farrah Mae R
1141 SEVILLA Miracle Joy P
1142 SIA Teresa Geraldine C
1143 SIA, III Quintin P
1144 SIAO Kristin Charisse C
1145 SIASON Alfonso Miguel ML
1146 SIH Davidson Rich L
1147 SILANGA Donnalee G
1148 SILVALA Michael Philip B
1149 SINOGBA Rosalio S
1150 SIRUNO Christian Paul G
1151 SISON Adrian Manuel P
1152 SISON Anna Marin F
1153 SISON Jeffrey Michael F
1154 SISON Sarah Maria Q
1155 SISOJAVIER Sheila Marie V
1156 SOBERANO Maria Jomah F
1157 SOJOR Alvie Marie L
1158 SOLANO John Albert S
1159 SOLERO Dhalya Grace M
1160 SOLIDON Trina Joy A
1161 SOLIS Carlo Roberto C
1162 SOLIVAS Jasmine L
1163 SOMBRITO Jenny Mae Z
1164 SOMERA Helen Grace J
1165 SORIANO Donna S
1166 SORIANO Marlon U
1167 STA. ANLAZARO Bernadeth N
1168 STA. ROSA Karla A
1169 SUBEJANO Z’sa May B
1170 SUBIBI Arneil B
1171 SUELO Risha Mae J
1172 SUGUE Neil Anthony L
1173 SUGUI Louella S
1174 SUGUITAN Sara Jane A
1175 SUMAGAYSAY Nasty Jones S
1176 SUMPO Gilda A
1177 SUSON Mary Ann W
1178 SY Anthony Jordan L
1179 SY Maritess C
1180 TABANERA Lynnicel L
1181 TABLATE Jaemarie N
1182 TADEO Ryan T
1183 TAGABINGALANO Lovelorn S
1184 TAMAYO Ray Jean D
1185 TAMON Bernard O
1186 TAMPON Aaron L
1187 TAN Art Laurent A
1188 TAN Ashley Lene N
1189 TAN Christine Joy K
1190 TAN Eunice Hyacinth L
1191 TAN Francis Ambrosio S
1192 TAN Norma A
1193 TANDOG Frances Cyrille F
1194 TANGONAN, III Eugenio N
1195 TANGUANCO Alvin B
1196 TAPAYAN Olive Grace A
1197 TAPIA Arvin Q
1198 TAYLAN Kathrine S
1199 TE Marilyn O
1200 TECSON Arlene Grace DV
1201 TECSON Ferdinand C
1202 TED Rosbie I
1203 TELAN Allison Zoila M
1204 TELAN Melissa Anne M
1205 TEMPROSA Charmie Clare T
1206 TEODORO Edison C
1207 TEODOSIO Therese T
1208 TIMBOL Chrysostom T
1209 TIMBREZA Nannette M
1210 TINAZA Leah B
1211 TIPAN Erlinda Candy S
1212 TIU Heli B
1213 TOLEDO Marjorie Ann C
1214 TOLENTINO Mark Kristopher G
1215 TOLENTINO Rommel T
1216 TOLOSA, JR. Benjamin S
1217 TOPACIO Anthony Leonard G
1218 TOQUERO Ismael A
1219 TORBELA Paolo G
1220 TORMES Francy D
1221 TORMIS Maria Carmen R
1222 TORREDES Artemio Jay G
1223 TORRENTIRA Aldrin O
1224 TORREVILLAS Manuenilda Rosario A
1225 TORRIL Jennifer M
1226 TRINIDAD Rudyard Anthony M
1227 TRIPOLI Christopher P
1228 TUAZON, III Jerome Victor C
1229 TUBBAN Henry Junior B
1230 TUMANENG Angeline M
1231 TUPAS Gene Carl L
1232 TUTOR, JR. Fidel S
1233 TY Robert Leo C
1234 UBOD Ronel A
1235 UDARBE Dendo G
1236 UGALINO Karen Anne M
1237 ULANDAY Marcelo N
1238 UMILA, II Benito B
1239 UNTALAN Mialeen C
1240 UY Jerilee V
1241 UY Juan Carlos T
1242 VALDEHUESALFANTE Cathlyn E
1243 VALDEHUEZA Christian L
1244 VALENZUELA Carol G
1245 VALERA, JR. Joseph D
1246 VALLEJO Jenny May G
1247 VARGAS Carlo Alessandro B
1248 VASQUEZ Gerald DL
1249 VEGA Marie Crystal May C
1250 VEHEMENTE Renato R
1251 VELASQUEZ Cielito May T
1252 VELASQUEZ Kaima Via B
1253 VELASQUEZ Shirley G
1254 VELOSO Marius Fitzgerald E
1255 VENERACION Ma. Theresa S
1256 VER Christian Francis C
1257 VERANO Samuel C
1258 VERGARA Manolo Geoffrey C
1259 VERGARA, III Melito A
1260 VILLABLANCA Reymond Q
1261 VILLAMOR Jordana Day V
1262 VILLAMOR Michael Angelo A
1263 VILLAMOR Vimari D
1264 VILLANIA Reynold B
1265 VILLANUEVA Karl Anthony B
1266 VILLANUEVA Monica Isabelle I
1267 VILLANUEVA Wilnerson B
1268 VILLARIÑA Glenn C
1269 VILLASFER Dennis R
1270 VILLEGAS Adelwiza S
1271 VILLEGAS Jonathan C
1272 VILLEGAS, II Enrique C
1273 VILLENA Charito R
1274 VILLENA Katherine C
1275 VILLEROZ Raymond C
1276 VIRAY, III Marcial Joseph M
1277 VISTO Jay M
1278 VITAL Menita J
1279 WADINGAN Lisle D
1280 WATANABE Ayako S
1281 WEE SIT IV Manuel M
1282 WONG Jessa G
1283 WONG Lynvic M
1284 XAVIER Ela R
April 3rd, 2009
(September 2008) Philippine Bar Exam Result
Philippine Bar Exam Trivia: Passing rate in recent Phillipine Bar Exams. Will this year be higher?
Below is the passing rate in the Philippine Bar Exam for the last 8 years…
* 2007 – 22.91% (1,289 passers of 5,626 examinees)
* 2006 – 30.60% (1,893 of 6,187)
* 2005 – 27.22% (1,526 of 5,607)
* 2004 – 31.61% (1,659 of 5,249)
* 2003 – 20.71% (1,108 of 5,349)
* 2002 – 19.68% (917 of 4,659)
* 2001 – 32.89% (1,266 of 3,849)
* 2000 - 20.84% (979 of 6,187)
The bar exam results for the Sept. 2008 bar was supposed to be released by mid of March and latest buzz is that it will be released today (April 1, 2009; April Fool’s Day).
Im sure that most aspiring lawyers who took the recent bar exam are now having butterflies in their stomach and are all excited (anxious?) for the release of the result. Rest assured, i’ll keep you guys posted once the list is out. Good luck to everyone!
Add comment April 1st, 2009
REVENUE REGULATION 13-98
Implementing Republic Act No. 8424
“An Act Amending the National Internal Revenue Code, as amended” Specifically Section 34 (H) Relative to the Deductibility of Contributions or Gifts Actually Paid or Made to Accredited Donee Institutions in Computing Taxable Income.
SECTION. 1. Definition of Terms
For purposes of these Regulations, the terms herein enumerated shall have the following meanings:
1. “Non-stock, non-profit corporation or organization” – shall refer to a corporation or association/organization referred to under Section 30 (E) and (G) of the Tax Code created or organized under Philippine laws exclusively for one or more of the following purposes:
1. religious;
2. charitable;
3. scientific;
4. athletic;
5. cultural;
6. rehabilitation of veterans; and
7. social welfare
2. “Non-government Organization (NGO)” – shall refer to a non-stock, non-profit domestic corporation or organization as defined under Section 34 (H)(2)(c) of the Tax Code organized and operated exclusively for scientific, research, educational, character-building and youth and sports development, health, social welfare, cultural or charitable purposes, or a combination thereof, no part of the net income of which inures to the benefit of any private individual.
1. Which, not later than the fifteenth (15th) day of the third month after the close of the NGO’s taxable year in which contributions are received, makes utilization directly for the active conduct of the activities constituting the purpose or function for which it is organized and operated, unless an extended period is granted by the Secretary of Finance, upon recommendation of the Commissioner;
2. The level of administrative expenses of which shall, on an annual basis, not exceed thirty percent (30%) of the total expenses for the taxable year; and
3. The assets of which, in the event of dissolution, would be distributed to another accredited NGO organized for similar purpose or purposes, or to the State for public purpose, or purposes, or to the state for public purpose, or would be distributed by a competent court of justice to another accredited NGO to be used in such manner as in the judgment of said court shall best accomplish the general purpose for which the dissolved organization was organized.
3. “Utilization” by an accredited NGO – shall refer to:
1. Any amount in cash or in kind, including administrative expenses, paid or utilized by an accredited NGO to accomplish one or more purposes for which it was created or organized; or
2. Any amount paid to acquire an asset used, or held for use, directly in carrying out one or more purposes for which the accredited NGO was created or organized; or
3. Any amount set aside for a specific project which comes within one or more purpose or purposes for which the accredited NGO was created, but only if at the time such amount is set aside, the accredited NGO has established to the satisfaction of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue that the amount will be utilized for a specific project within a period not to exceed five (5) years, and the project is the one which can be better accomplished by setting aside such amount than by immediate payments of funds: Provided, That, the utilization requirements prescribed under Sec. 5 of these Regulations shall be complied with; or
4. Any amount in cash or in kind invested in any activity related to the purpose for which it was created or organized.
5. Any amount in cash or in kind invested in capital sustaining and generating activities, such as but not limited to, endowment funds, trust funds, money market placements, shares of stock and similar instruments: Provided, That, any income derived from these investments shall be exclusively used in activities directly related to one or more purposes for which the accredited NGO was created or organized.
4. “Accrediting Entity” – shall refer to a non-stock, non-profit organization composed of NGO networks, duly designated by the Secretary of Finance to establish and operationalize a system of accreditation to determine the qualification of non-stock, non-profit corporations or organizations and NGOs for accreditation as qualified-donee institutions. The Secretary of Finance and the Commissioner of Internal Revenue shall oversee, monitor and coordinate with the Accrediting Entity to ensure that the provisions of these Regulations are complied with. In this connection, the Secretary of Finance or the Commissioner of Internal Revenue or their duly authorized representative shall sit as ex officio member of the Board of Trustees of the Accrediting entity with the right to vote. The Secretary of Finance may also designate an official of a concerned government agency, e.g. Department of Science and Technology, to assist the Board of Trustees in the accreditation of foundations.
The Secretary of Finance shall designate an entity as an Accrediting Entity provided it has a countrywide membership composed of (a) NGOs which belong to the sector that the Private Accrediting Entity intends to certify; (b) NGOs which have been in existence for at least five (5) years; and (c) NGOs not more than 50% of the members of which belong to other existing NGOs or Private Accrediting Agencies.
The Philippine Council for NGO Certification, Inc. (PCNC), a non-stock, non-profit corporation which was established by several NGO networks (e.g., Caucus of Development NGO Networks (CODE-NGO); Philippine Business for Social Progress (PBSP); Association of Foundations (AF); League of Corporate Foundations (LCF); Bishops-Businessmen’s Conference for Human Development (BBC); and the National Council for Social Development Foundation (NCSD)), has been duly designated by the Secretary of Finance as an Accrediting Entity pursuant to Memorandum of Agreement dated January 29, 1998 executed by and between the Secretary of Finance and PCNC’s Interim Chairman.
5. “Religious purpose” – shall refer to the promotion, propagation and accomplishment of any form of religion, creed or religious belief recognized by the Government of the Republic of the Philippines.
6. “Charitable activity” – shall refer to extending relief to the poor, distressed and underprivileged and shall include fighting against juvenile delinquency and community deterioration.
7. “Scientific and research purpose” – shall refer to undertaking or assisting in pure or basic, applied and scientific research in the field of agriculture, forestry, fisheries, industry, engineering, energy development, food and nutrition, medicine, environment and biological, physical and natural sciences for the public interest.
1. Basic research shall refer to an experimental or theoretical work undertaken primarily to acquire new knowledge of the underlying foundations of phenomena and observable facts without any particular application or use in view. It analyzes properties, structures or relationships with a view to formulating and testing hypothesis, theories or laws. The results of basic research are not generally sold but are usually published in scientific journals or circulars to interested colleagues.
2. Applied research shall refer to an original investigation undertaken in order to acquire new knowledge. It is directed primarily towards a specific practical aim or objective. It is undertaken either to determine possible uses for the findings of basic research or to determine new methods or ways of achieving some specific and predetermined objectives. It involves the consideration of the available knowledge and its extension in order to solve particular problems. Applied research develops ideas into operational form.
3. Scientific research will be regarded as carried on for public interest if the results of such research are made available to the public on a non-discriminatory basis; or if such research is performed for the Government of the Philippines or any of its agencies or political subdivisions; or if such research is directed to benefit the public.
8. “Character building and youth and sports development (or athletic) purposes” – shall refer to and include conducting basic and applied research on youth development, initiating and establishing youth organizations to promote and develop youth activities, including the establishment of summer camps or centers for leadership training, conducting a program on physical fitness and amateur sports development for the country; developing or maintaining recreational facilities, playgrounds and sports centers; and conducting training programs for the development of youth and athletes for national and international competitions.
9. “Cultural activity” – shall refer to and include undertaking and/or assisting in research activities on all aspects of history, social system, customs and traditions; developing, enriching and preserving Filipino arts and culture; developing and promoting the visual and performing arts; and participating in vigorous implementation of bilingual policy through translation and wider use of technical, scientific and creative publications, development of an adaptive technical dictionary and use of Filipino as the medium of instruction.
10. “Educational activity” – shall refer to and include the granting of scholarships to deserving students and professional chairs for the enhancement of professional courses, and instructing or training of individuals either through formal and informal methods, viz:
1. Formal method of instruction refers to the institutionalized, chronologically graded and hierarchically structured educational system at all levels of education;
2. Non-formal method of instruction refers to any deliberately organized, systematic educational activity carried on outside the framework of the formal system to provide selected types of learning to particular subgroups of the population, particularly out-of-school youths and adults, for the purpose of communicating ideas, developing skills, changing attitudes or modifying behavior to improve their character and to provide them with tools necessary for the achievement of a higher standard of living. For the purpose of this section, a certification from the Technical Education and Skills Development Authority (TESDA) is required for the accreditation of the non-formal educational program which is implemented or carried out by a non-stock, non-profit corporation, organization or an NGO.
It also includes upgrading of existing facilities to support the conduct of the above activities.
11. “Rehabilitation of veterans” – shall include services extended to Philippine veterans and members of their families because of financial difficulties and attendant problems; and services extended to disabled veterans towards productive life.
12. “Social welfare purposes” – shall refer to and include
1. undertaking and/or assisting in the amelioration of the living conditions of distressed citizens particularly those who are handicapped by reasons of poverty, youth, physical and mental disability, illness, old age, and natural disasters, including assistance to cultural minorities;
2. pursuing a program for the protection and development of children and youth, such as providing services for drop-outs, pre-school children of low-income working mothers, and physically handicapped children;
3. providing for the rehabilitation of the youth and disabled adults, released prisoners, drug addicts, alcoholics, mentally retarded, hansenites and similar cases; and
4. providing for services to squatter families and to displaced workers
13. “Health purposes” – shall refer to include the pursuit of any of the following:
1. control, prevention and treatment of communicable and degenerative diseases, accidents and other health disabilities;
2. family planning program designed to indicate knowledge and understanding of population, human growth and development of family life;
3. environment sanitation, such as, public sewerage system and sanitary toilets; and
4. nutrition, which aims to reduce the prevalence of malnutrition and increase the energy and protein intake among households.
SECTION 2. Accreditation of non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs by the Accrediting Entity
1. The Accrediting Entity shall examine, evaluate and accredit non-stock, non-profit corporations and NGOs as a pre-requisite for their registration with the BIR as qualified-donee institutions under Section 34 (H)(1) and (2)(c) of the Tax Code.
2. Newly-organized and existing non-stock, non-profit corporations and NGOs shall apply with the Accrediting Entity for accreditation and submit to a process of examination and evaluation. The application for accreditation shall be accompanied by the following documents:
1. Articles of Incorporation and By-laws;
2. Certificate of Registration with the Securities and Exchange Commission;
3. Affidavit of Modus Operandi showing:
1. the character of the organization;
2. the purpose for which it is organized;
3. the lists of projects/activities for the past two (2) years, or list of proposed projects/activities for the first two (2) years of operations for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs;
4. the source of income and the utilization thereof, or target fund sources for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/ NGOs; and
5. other facts relating to their operations which are relevant to their qualification as donee institutions;
4. Duly audited financial statements for the past two (2) years showing the assets, liabilities, receipts and disbursements of existing organizations, or financial projections for the first two (2) years for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs.
3. The Accrediting Entity shall evaluate and accredit non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs using the following major criteria:
1. Mission and Goals
The mission and goals of the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO should justify its existence. Statements of mission and goals shall serve as guideposts for its planning and operations and a framework for decision-making.
2. Resources
This criterion focuses on the adequacy of the resources and the effectiveness of the structure and systems of the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO. Areas that should be evaluated under this criterion include the organization structure, human, financial and physical resources. Evaluation shall take into account the names, positions and qualifications of the individuals or committee members who manage and make decisions for the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO, its source of funds and distribution of financial resources, and the following exhibits at the time of examination, among others:
1. Minutes of the Board meetings;
2. Table of organization;
3. Policy Manual, if any;
4. Personnel Manual, if any;
5. Budget for the past two (2) years, or proposed projects for the first two (2) years of operations for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs; and
6. Audited financial statements for the past two years for existing non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs.
3. Program Implementation and Evaluation
The non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO must demonstrate that it is effectively using its resources to accomplish the purposes for which it was created. There should be clearly defined policies, priorities and guidelines for implementing the various programs and projects. Evaluation shall consider programs and projects implemented within the last two years; description of how its programs/projects/services are managed; how the following procedures are carried out; record keeping, monitoring, evaluating and contingency planning; programs/projects vis-à-vis the needs and priorities of its beneficiaries; the present documentation or results of evaluation and provisions for adequate training, people participation, development of leaders and eventual self-sufficiency.
4. Planning for the Future
The non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO must provide evidence that it has the capability to plan, implement and monitor its programs and projects. Evaluation shall provide evidence that the non-profit corporation/NGO has mechanisms for planning, implementing and monitoring its programs and projects and for ensuring the continuity of programs/projects even when external funding has ceased. Evaluation shall also rely on the presentation of the following exhibits at the time of visit:
1. Organizational plan
2. Monitoring and evaluation tools
4. The Secretary of Finance, upon the recommendation of the Board of Trustees of the Accrediting Entity can waive the submission of duly audited financial statements for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs which have been organized to carry out programs of national significance, e.g. foundation to build the National Museum. They shall be eligible to apply for a three (3) -year probationary accreditation and registration as qualified donee institutions with the Accrediting Entity.
5. Existing non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs which have qualified as donee institutions under BIR-NEDA Regulations 1-81, as amended, shall have three (3) years beginning the effectivity of these rules and regulations within which to secure a Certificate of Accreditation from the Accrediting Entity . Failure by the said non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs to secure accreditation within the three-year period shall be a ground for the cancellation by the BIR of their Certificates of Registration as qualified-donee institutions: Provided, however, That donations and contributions to the said non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs during the three-year period shall still be allowed as deductible expense on the part of the donors subject to the provisions of Sec. 4 of these Regulations: Provided, further, That after the three-year period, only donations and contributions to non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs which have been accredited under these Regulations, shall be allowed as deductible expense on the part of the donors.
6. The Accrediting Entity shall issue a Certificate of Accreditation to a non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO upon determination that it meets the criteria for accreditation; Provided, that the Certificate of Accreditation shall be valid for a maximum period of five (5) years for existing non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs and three (3) years for newly-organized non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs.
7. The Accrediting Entity shall deny the application of any non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO which does not meet the criteria for accreditation. The Private Accrediting Entity shall notify the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO of the denial of the application, the reasons therefor, and the evaluators’ recommendation in order that the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO may meet the criteria for accreditation. A non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO whose application for accreditation has been denied by the Private Accrediting Entity shall have one (1) year within which to implement the evaluator’s recommendations. After the one-year implementation period, the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO may re-apply for accreditation.
8. The Secretary of Finance and the Commissioner of Internal Revenue shall oversee, monitor and coordinate with the Accrediting Entity to ensure that the provisions of these Regulations are complied with.
SECTION 3. Donations to Accredited Non-stock, Non-profit Corporations/NGOs
Donations to accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/ NGOs shall be entitled to the following benefits:
1. Limited Deductibility – Donations, contributions or gifts actually paid or made within the taxable year to accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations shall be allowed limited deductibility in an amount not in excess of ten percent (10%) for an individual donor, and five percent (5%) for a corporate donor, of the donor’s income derived from trade, business or profession as computed without the benefit of this deduction.
2. Full Deductibility – Donations, contributions or gifts actually paid or made within the taxable year to accredited NGOs shall be allowed full deductibility, subject to the following conditions:
1. The accredited NGO shall make utilization directly for the active conduct of the activities constituting the purpose or function for which it is organized and operated, not later than the fifteenth (15th) day of the third month after the close of the accredited NGOs taxable year in which contributions are received, unless an extended period is granted by the Secretary of Finance, upon recommendation of the Commissioner.
For this purpose, the term “utilization” shall have the meaning as defined under Sec. 1(c) of these Regulations.
2. The level of administrative expenses of the accredited NGO, shall, on an annual basis, not exceed thirty percent (30%) of the total expenses for the taxable year;
3. In the event of dissolution, the assets of the accredited NGO, would be distributed to another accredited NGO organized for similar purpose or purposes, or to the State for public purpose, or purposes, or to the state for public purpose, or would be distributed by a competent court of justice to another accredited NGO to be used in such manner as in the judgment of said court shall best accomplished the general purpose for which the dissolved organization was organized.
4. The amount of any charitable contribution of property other than money shall be based on the acquisition cost of said property.
5. All the members of the Board of Trustees of the non-stock, non-profit corporation, organization or NGO do not receive compensation or remuneration for their service to the aforementioned organization.
3. Exemption from Donor’s Tax – Donations and gifts made in favor of accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs shall be exempt from the donor’s tax: Provided, however, That not more than thirty percent (30%) of the said donations and gifts for the taxable year shall be used by such accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs institutions qualified-donee institution for administration purposes pursuant to the provisions of Section 101 (A)(3) and (B)(2) of the Tax Code.
SECTION 4. Utilization Requirements
Amounts set aside or to be set aside for a specific project must have the prior approval of the Commissioner in writing: Provided, however, That a certification issued by the Accrediting Entity that the accredited NGO’s specific project is one which can be better accomplished by setting aside the funds, shall be sufficient basis for the Commissioner to grant his/her approval.
The application for the Commissioner’s prior approval must contain the following:
1. the nature and purpose of the specific project and the amount programmed therefor;
2. a detailed description of the project, including estimated costs, sources of any future funds expected to be used for completion of the project, and the location or locations (general or specific) of any physical facility to be acquired or constructed as part of the project; and
3. a statement by an authorized official of the organization that the amount to be set aside will actually be disbursed for the specific project within five (5) years from the date of approval by the Commissioner, unless the nature of the project is such that the five-year period is impracticable.
Amounts set aside shall be evidenced by book entries and documents showing evidence of deposits or investments, including investment of the funds so set aside, or other documents that the Commissioner may require.
SECTION 5. Certificate of Donations
All accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO are required to issue a certificate of donation in such form as prescribed by the BIR, on every donation or gift they receive. Such certificate shall be accomplished by the said accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO in triplicate and distributed within thirty (30) days after the receipt of the donation, as follows:
1. Original copy – Donor
2. Duplicate copy – BIR
3. Triplicate copy – Donee
SECTION 6. Notice of Donations
The donor, on the other hand, should give a notice for every donation worth over One Million pesos (P 1,000,000) to the Revenue District Officer where his place of business is located within thirty (30) days after the receipt of the Certificate of Donation attaching to the said notice the copy of the Certificate of Donation issued to him by the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO.
SECTION 7. Date and Place of Filing Returns
1. Time of Filing – Claims for limited or full deductibility of donations and contributions by the donors shall be filed by the donors at the time of filing their income tax returns.
On the other hand, the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/ NGO shall file its annual information return not later than the fifteenth (15th) day of the fourth month after the close of its taxable year in order to maintain its status as an accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO.
2. Place of Filing – The income tax return and/or the annual information return of the donor or of the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO shall be filed in the Revenue District Office where the place of business of the donor or the donee, as the case may be, is located.
SECTION 8. Substantiation Requirements
1. For Donors – Donors claiming donations and contributions to accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO as deductions from their taxable business income should submit evidences or proofs to the BIR by showing the Certificate/s of Donation and indicating therein the following:
1. Actual receipt by the accredited non-stock, non profit corporation/ NGO of the donation or contribution and the date of receipt thereof; and
2. The amount of the charitable donation or contribution, if in cash; if property, whether real or personal, the acquisition cost of the said property.
On the other hand, donors claiming exemption from donor’s tax on their donations and contributions to accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs should submit evidences or proofs showing the amount of donation, if in cash; if real property, the zonal value thereof at the time of donation; and if personal property, the acquisition cost thereof, but if said personal property had already been used at the time of donation, the depreciated or book value thereof.
2. For Accredited Non-stock, Non-profit Corporations/ NGOs – Accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs shall, upon filing their income tax returns/annual information returns, furnish the Revenue District Officer of the place where the said accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/ NGO is located, the following:
1. A list of the donations and income received during the year, showing the name and address of the donors; the sources of income; the amount or market value of each donation and items of income and the disposition thereof;
2. A list of the activities and/or projects undertaken by the institution and the cost of each undertaking indicating in particular where and how the donations has been utilized;
3. A list of projects, their corresponding costs; the amount “set aside” and the status of funds balances at the end of the year;
4. A declaration that the utilization requirements under Sections 2(c) and 8 of these Regulations have been sufficiently complied with;
5. A declaration that no part of the net income of the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO inures to the benefit of any private stockholder or individual; and
6. A declaration of the status of project implementation.
SECTION 9. Monitoring and Verification of Annual Information Return
Pursuant to the last paragraph of Section 235 of the Tax Code, any provision of existing general or special law to the contrary notwithstanding, the books of accounts and other pertinent records, as well as the operations, of accredited non-stock, non-profit corporations/NGOs may be examined by the BIR annually for purposes of ascertaining compliance with the conditions under which they have been granted tax exemptions or tax incentives, and their tax liability, if any. Compliance by the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO with the conditions set forth in the grant of incentives under Sec. 4 of these Regulations shall be strictly monitored to ascertain whether or not they have met the requirements for maintaining the status as an accredited qualified-donee institution.
SECTION 10. Prohibited Transactions
Any accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO enjoying the benefits provided for under Sec. 4 of these Regulations is prohibited from undertaking any of the following transactions:
1. Lending any part of its income or property without adequate security and/or a reasonable rate of interest unless the institution has a formal micro-credit or micro-finance program as approved by their Board of Trustees;
2. Purchasing any security and/or property for more than an adequate consideration in money or money’s worth;
3. Selling any part of the security or other property for less than adequate consideration in money or money’s worth;
4. Diverting its income or transferring its property by way of lease or sale to any member of its Board of Trustees, founder/s or principal officers or any member of their families or to any corporation controlled directly or indirectly by the aforesaid individuals or their families in accordance with the attribution of stock ownership under Section 73 (A) and (B) of the Tax Code;
5. Using any part of its property, income or seed capital for any purpose other than that for which the corporation was created or organized; or
6. Engaging in any activity which is contrary to law, public order or public policy.
SECTION 11. Withdrawal of Certificate of Accreditation and Revocation of the Certificate of Registration
1. The Accrediting Entity shall have the authority to withdraw the Certificate of Accreditation which it issued to a non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO upon a determination that the latter no longer meets the criteria for accreditation under Sec. 2 (c) of these Regulations. The Private Accrediting Entity concerned shall inform the Legal Service of the National Office or the concerned division of the Regional Offices of the withdrawal of the Certificate of Accreditation and recommend to the BIR the revocation of the Certificate of Registration of the non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO concerned.
2. The Accrediting Entity which issued the Certificate of Accreditation shall report to the Legal Service of the National Office or to the concerned division of the Regional Offices any violation of any provision of these Regulations by the accredited non-stock, non-profit corporation/NGO. Violation of any provision of these Regulations shall constitute a ground for the withdrawal by the Private Accrediting Entity concerned of the Certificate of Accreditation and the revocation by the BIR of the Certificate of Registration.
3. Any donor found to have participated in or consented to the violation of these Regulations shall be deprived of the benefits provided under Sec. 4 of these Regulations implementing Sections 34 (H)(1), (2)(c) and 101(A)(3), (B)(2) of the Tax Code. Thus, the limited or full deductibility of donations and contributions shall be disallowed and the corresponding donor’s tax due on the donation, including statutory increments or penalties thereto provided in the Tax Code, shall be assessed and collected. The said penalties shall be in addition to any administrative or criminal penalty provided for by laws or regulations.
SECTION 12. Repealing Clause
All internal revenue issuances, rules and regulations, or parts thereof, which are contrary to or inconsistent with these Regulations are hereby repealed, amended or modified accordingly.
SECTION 13. Effectivity
These Regulations shall take effect fifteen (15) days after publication in the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation in the Philippines.
Add comment March 25th, 2009
Revenue Regulation 3-98
REVENUE REGULATIONS NO. 3-98
(May 21, 1998)
FRINGE BENEFITS TAX
These regulations govern the collection at source of the tax on fringe benefits which have been furnished, granted or paid by the employer beginning January 1, 1998.
A final withholding tax called the Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT) is imposed on the grossed-up monetary value of fringe benefit furnished, granted or paid by an employer to an employee who is holding a managerial or supervisory position. The FBT will be imposed regardless of whether such employer is an individual, professional partnership or a corporation, or that the corporation is taxable or not, or the employer is the Philippine government or one of its instrumentalities.
Only fringe benefits given or furnished to managerial or supervisory employees are subject to FBT. For this purpose, the term “managerial employees” refers to those who are vested with powers or prerogatives to lay down and execute management policies and/or to hire, transfer, suspend, lay-off, recall, discharge, assign or discipline employees. “Supervisory employees” are those who effectively recommend such managerial actions if the exercise of such authority is not merely routinary or clerical in nature but requires the use of independent judgment. “Rank and file employees” means all employees who are holding neither managerial nor supervisory position.
Fringe benefits which have been paid prior to January 1, 1998 shall not be subject to FBT.
FBT rates
In general, the fringe benefit tax rate is 34% in 1998, 33% in 1999 and 32% in year 2000 and thereafter. The grossed-up monetary value of the fringe benefit is determined by dividing the monetary value of the fringe benefit by 66% in 1998; 67% in 1999 and 68% beginning January 1, 2000.
Fringe benefits given to certain managerial and supervisory employees are taxed at preferential rates, viz:
FBT Rate |
Gross-up Factor |
|
Alien individual who is not engaged in trade or business in the Philippines ……………………………………
|
25% |
75% |
Alien employed by
|
15% |
85% |
Filipino individual employees who are employed and occupying the same position as those occupied or held by the alien employees in the entities listed above…………………………………………… |
15% |
85% |
Fringe benefits received by employees in special economic zones are also covered by these regulations. The FBT rate to be applied would be governed by the same rules discussed above. Thus, if the fringe benefit is given to employees of a representative office located in the zone, the FBT rate is 15%. On the other hand, if the company providing the benefits is a regular company, the normal rate of FBT will apply.
Fringe benefits refer to goods, services or other benefits furnished or granted by an employer in cash or in kind, in addition to basic salaries, to managerial or supervisory employees such as, but not limited to the following:
o Housing;
o Expense account;
o Vehicle of any kind;
o Household personnel, such as maid, driver and others;
o Interest on loan at less than market rate to the extent of the difference between the market rate and actual rate granted;
o Membership fees, dues and other expenses borne by the employer for the employee in social and athletic clubs or other similar organizations;
o Expenses for foreign travel;
o Holiday and vacation expenses;
o Educational assistance to the employee or his dependents; and
o Life or health insurance and other non-life insurance premiums or similar amounts in excess of what the law allows.
However, the following benefits are not covered by the FBT.
1. Fringe benefits which are authorized and exempted from income tax under the Code or under special law. Separation benefits which are given to employees who are involuntarily separated from work are not subject to FBT.
2. Contributions of the employer for the benefit of the employee to retirement, insurance and hospitalization benefit plans;
3. Benefits given to the rank and file, whether granted under a collective bargaining agreement or not;
4. De minimis benefits
5. Benefits granted to employee as required by the nature of, or necessary to the trade, business or profession of the employer
6. Benefits granted for the convenience of the employer
Although the benefit may be exempt from FBT, it may, however, still form part of the employee’s gross compensation income which is subject to income tax, which is required to be covered by the withholding tax on wages.
“De minimis” benefits refer to facilities or privileges furnished or offered by an employer to his employees that are of relatively small value and are offered or furnished by the employer merely as a means of promoting the health, goodwill, contentment or efficiency of his employees, such as the following:
o Monetized unused vacation leave credits of employees not exceeding ten (10) days during the year;
o Medical allowance for employee’s dependents not exceeding P125 per month;
o Rice subsidy of P350
o Uniform allowance
o Medical benefits
o Laundry allowance of P150 per month
o Employee achievement awards in the form of a tangible property, with an annual monetary value not exceeding ½ of the basic salary of employee;
o Christmas and major anniversary celebration for employees and their guests;
o Company picnics and sports tournaments in the Philippines exclusively participated in by employees
o Flowers, fruits or similar items given under special circumstances, e.g. illness, marriage, etc.
In addition, the following fringe benefits are also not subject to FBT because they are necessary to the business of the employer, or granted for the convenience of the employer:
o Housing privilege of military officials of the AFP located inside or near the military camps.
o A housing unit which is situated inside or at most 50 meters from the perimeter of the business premises.
o Temporary housing for an employee for 3 months or less.
o Expenses of the employee which are reimbursed by the employer if they are supported by receipts in the name of the employer and do not partake the nature of a personal expense of the employee.
o Motor vehicles used for sales, freight, delivery service and other non-personal uses
o The use of aircraft (including helicopters) owned and maintained by the employer
o Business expenses which are paid for by the employer for the foreign travel of his employees in connection with business meetings or conventions. The expenses should be supported by documents proving the actual occurrences of the meetings/conventions, or official communications from business associates
Valuation of Benefits
The computation of the fringe benefits tax would entail valuation of the benefit granted and determination of the proportion or percentage of the benefit which is subject to the FBT. In cases where the fringe benefits entail joint benefits to the employer and employee, the portion which shall be subject to the FBT and the guidelines for the valuation of fringe benefits are defined below.
In general, the valuation of fringe benefits shall be as follows:
1. If benefit is granted in money or is paid directly paid for by employer, then the value is the amount granted or paid for.
2. If the employer gave the employee a property and the title to the property is placed under his name, the fair market value of the property will be considered as the monetary value of the fringe benefit.
3. However, if the employee is only allowed to use the property, and the title to the property remains with the employer, the monetary value of the benefit is equal to the depreciation value of the property.
Certain guidelines are set for the valuation and determination of the monetary value of specific types of benefits.
1. Housing
If employer leases a residential property for the use of his employee, the value of the benefit shall be the amount of rental paid by the employer, as evidenced by the lease contract. The monetary value shall be equal to fifty percent (50%) of the value of the benefit.
If the property provided for the use of the employee belongs to his employer, the annual value of the benefit shall be equal to 5% of the market value of the land and improvement as declared in the Real Property Tax Declaration Form or zonal value thereof as determined by the BIR, whichever is higher. The monetary value of the fringe benefit shall be fifty percent (50%) of the value of the benefit.
If the employer purchases property on installment basis and allows it to be used by its employee, the annual value of the benefit shall be five percent (5%) of the acquisition cost of the property, exclusive of interest. The monetary value of fringe benefit shall be fifty percent (50%) of the value of the benefit.
If the employer purchases a residential property and transfers ownership thereof in the name of the employee, its monetary value is equal to the full amount of the acquisition cost or zonal value as determined by the BIR, whichever is higher. In case the property is sold to the employee at a price less than the acquisition cost, the difference between the fair market value or zonal value, whichever is higher, and the cost of the property to the employee will be the basis for FBT.
2. Motor Vehicle
If the employer purchases the motor vehicle in the name of the employee, the acquisition price will be the value of the benefit. The monetary value of the fringe benefit shall be the entire value of the benefit, regardless of whether the motor vehicle is used by the employee partly for his personal purpose and partly for the benefit of the employer.
If the employer pays for the car on installment basis and ownership of the car is placed in the name of the employee, the value of the benefit shall be the acquisition cost exclusive of interest, divided by five (5) years. The monetary value shall be the entire value of the benefit.
If instead of buying the car directly, the employer gave the employee money to purchase the car, whether the full amount or just a portion of the price, the cash received by the employee will be used as basis for FBT. However, the subsidy given by the employer is not subject to FBT if it was declared as part of the employee’s taxable compensation income subject to withholding tax.
If the employer owns and maintains, or leases a fleet of motor vehicles for the use of the business and employees, the value of the benefit is equal to the acquisition cost of all motor vehicles not normally used for sales, freight, delivery service and other non-personal use divided by five (5) years. The monetary value shall be fifty percent (50%) of the value of the benefit.
The use by the employee of the yacht owned or being leased by his employer is subject to FBT and the value of the benefit is measures based on the depreciation of the yacht at an estimated useful life of 20 years.
3. Foreign business travel
If employee is given a first class airplane ticket, the monetary value of the benefit is equal to 30% of the cost of the first class airplane ticket.
The full amount of the travelling expenses of the family members of the employee which are paid for by the employer is subject to FBT.
4. Expense account
In general, expenses incurred by the employee which are paid by his employer, and expenses paid for by the employee but reimbursed by his employer shall be treated as taxable benefits. However, expenditures which are not in the nature of a personal expense of the employee are not subject to FBT provided that these are supported by receipts in the name of the employer.
Personal expenses of the employee paid for or reimbursed by the employer are subject to FBT, even if the same are duly receipted in the name of the employer.
Representations and transportation allowances which are fixed in amounts and regularly received by the employee as part of their monthly compensation income will be considered as taxable compensation income.
5. Loans Extended by Employers
If the employer lends money to his employee free of interest, the interest waived which will be computed at the rate of 12% is considered as a benefit to the employee.
If the loan was given with interest but at a rate lower than 12%, the difference of the interest assumed by the employee and the rate of 12% shall be treated as taxable fringe benefit.
This rule will apply to installment payments or loans with interest rate lower than 12% starting January 1, 1998.
6. Educational support
The cost of the educational assistance to the employee which are borne by the employer shall be treated as taxable fringe benefit.
However, if the employer granted a scholarship to the employee for an education or study which is directly connected with the employer’s business, it is not subject to FBT if there is a written contract between them that the employee is under obligation to remain in the employ of the employer for a period of time that they have mutually agreed upon.
The cost of educational assistance extended to the employee’s dependents is not taxable if such assistance was provided through a competitive scheme under the scholarship program of the company.
7. Insurance
The cost of life or health insurance and other non-life insurance premiums borne by the employer for his employee shall be treated as taxable fringe benefits.
However, the cost of life or health insurance borne by the employer if made under the SSS or GSIS or similar contributions arising from the provisions of any other existing law is not taxable. Likewise, the cost of premiums borne by the employer for the group insurance of his employees is not subject to FBT.
Payment of FBT
The FBT is treated as a final income tax on the employee which is required to be withheld and paid by the employer on a calendar quarterly basis. The FBT return is required to be filed and the FBT withheld paid within 25 days from the close of the quarter when withholding was made.
Effectivity
FBT must be paid on all benefits granted starting January 1, 1998. Since the rules were released only in April, no penalty will be imposed for late payment of the fringe benefit tax for the first quarter ending March 1998 for as long as the FBT for the first quarter is paid not later than July 25, 1998.
3 comments March 24th, 2009
Are lawyers liers? Let’s see…
A small town prosecuting attorney called his first witness to the stand in a trial–a grandmotherly, elderly woman.
He approached her and asked, “Mrs. Jones, do you know me?”
She responded, “Why, yes, I do know you Mr. Williams. I’ve known you since you were a young boy. And frankly, you’ve been a big disappointment to me. You lie, you cheat on your wife, you manipulate people and talk about them behind their backs. You think you’re a rising big shot when you haven’t the brains to realize you never will amount to anything more than a two-bit paper pusher. Yes, I know you.”
The lawyer was stunned. Not knowing what else to do he pointed across the room and asked, “Mrs. Williams, do you know the defense attorney?”
She again replied, “Why, yes I do. I’ve known Mr. Bradley since he was a youngster, too. I used to baby-sit him for his parents. And he, too, has been a real disappointment to me. He’s lazy, bigoted, he has a drinking problem. The man can’t build a normal relationship with anyone and his law practice is one of the shoddiest in the entire state. Yes, I know him.”
At this point, the judge rapped the courtroom to silence and called both counselors to the bench.
In a very quiet voice, he said with menace, “If either of you asks her if she knows me, you’ll be in jail for contempt within 5 minutes!” (^_^)
Add comment November 29th, 2008
BANTAY KORTE SUPREMA
OFFICIAL STATEMENT
Seven of the 15 incumbent Supreme Court Justices, or almost majority of said collegial body, will be retiring next year. Only one person, the President, will be appointing these vacancies, and only upon the recommendation of the Judicial and Bar Council.
To assure that the fitness, integrity and competence of the High Tribunal are preserved, a diverse group comprising of representatives from various sectors has convened Bantay Korte Suprema.
Bantay Korte Suprema aims to ensure that the nomination. Evaluation, recommendation and appointment of the seven incoming Supreme Court Justices be transparent and public, not duly influenced by parochial and short-term political considerations.
Bantay Korte Suprema includes former Philippine Presidents, retired Supreme Court Justices, the legal academe, lawyers’ association, practitioners, selected legislators, chambers of commerce and media organizations.
The Supreme Court is considered the final arbiter of legal controversies. It stands reflective of the Judiciary and our entire legal system. A selection process done behind a veil casts doubts on the very credibility of the appointments, considering the peculiar situation that the current Chief Executive has the power to name almost half of the High Tribunal’s membership.
Let the nomination, evaluation, recommendation, selection and appointment be made public, so that we, the Filipino people, are assured that the subsequent Supreme Court is OUR Supreme Court, and no one else’s.
We invite you to the launching of Bantay Korte Suprema on Monday, November 17, 2008, 10:00 o’ clock in the morning at the Training Center , Ground Floor Centennial Building , Supreme Court, Padre Faura cor. Taft Avenue , Manila .
Add comment November 18th, 2008
What is Qualified Political Agency?
Under this doctrine, which recognizes the establishment of a single executive, all executive and administrative organizations are adjuncts of the Executive Department, the heads of the various executive departments are assistants and agents of the Chief Executive, and, except in cases where the Chief Executive is required by the Constitution or law to act in person or the exigencies of the situation demand that he act personally, the multifarious executive and administrative functions of the Chief Executive are performed by and through the executive departments, and the acts of the Secretaries of such departments, performed and promulgated in the regular course of business, are, unless disapproved or reprobated by the Chief Executive, presumptively the acts of the Chief Executive
Add comment November 8th, 2008
Love to eat…Learn to cook it…(Pork Siomai)
Siomai is a dimsum of Chinese origin which is loved by many Filipinos. One can order different kinds of siomai but the base is always pork. The ground meat should have some fat otherwise the cooked siomai will be too tough. Prawns or shrimps can be substituted for part of the pork if desired.
Estimated cooking time: 50 minutes
Shrimp and Pork Siomai Ingredients: |
- 1 kg ground pork (suggested proportion of fat to lean meat is 1:3) or 1 kg Prawn (shrimp) peeled
- 1/3 cup chopped water chestnuts or turnips (singkamas)
- 1/3 cup chopped carrots
- 2 medium or 1 large minced onion(s)
- bunch of spring onions or leeks
- 1 egg
- 5 tablespoons sesame oil
- 1 teaspoon freshly ground pepper
- 1 teaspoon salt
- 50 pcs. large or 100 pcs. small wanton or siomai wrapper
- soy sauce, calamansi (lemon or kumquats), sesame oil and chilli paste (for the sauce)
- Wrapper:
- 1/4 cup water
- 1 egg
- 1 tablespoon vegetable or corn oil
- 1/4 teaspoon salt
- 1 1/2 cups all-purpose flour
- Chilli Paste:
- 1/8 kilo Chillies (Siling Labuyo)
- 3 tablespoons cooking oil
- 2 cloves garlic, peeled and minced
Siomai Cooking Instructions: |
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Mix all the ingredients for the filling in a bowl.
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Spoon 1 tablespoon of mixture into each wrapper. Fold and seal.
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Meanwhile, boil water and brush steamer with oil.
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When the water gets to a rolling boil, arrange the siomai in the steamer and let stand for 15-20 minutes, longer for larger pieces.
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Serve with soy sauce, calamansi and sesame oil. Chilli paste is optional.
Wrapper:
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Beat egg and mix with flour till free of lumps.
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Bring water, cooking oil and salt to a boil, then pour in flour.
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Remove from heat and beat until mixture forms a ball.
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Divide the dough into 1 1/4 -inch balls.
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Roll each ball on a floured board until paper thin. Set aside.
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Simplest version of chilli sauce would be to chop chillies well and fry them in oil, sesame or vegetable oil, never olive oil if you want it to have a Filipino taste.
Chilli Paste:
Combine chopped chillies and minced garlic then simmer for around 20 minutes or till most of the water has evaporated. Add oil, simmer and stir well.
Add comment October 22nd, 2008
BAR EXAMINATION 2008: REMEDIAL LAW
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| 28 September 2008 | 8 A.M. – 12 NN. | |
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INSTRUCTIONS This questionnaire consists of twenty-one (21) questions contained in eight (8) pages. Read each question very carefully. Answer legibly, clearly and concisely. Start each number on a separate page; an answer to a subquestion under the same number may be written continuously on the same page and on the immediately succeeding pages until completed. Do not repeat the question. You will be given credit for your knowledge of legal doctrine and for the quality of your legal reasoning. A mere “Yes” or “No” answer without any corresponding discussion will not be given any credit. HAND IN YOUR NOTEBOOK WITH THIS QUESTIONNAIRE. GOOD LUCK!!! |
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| Signed DANTE O. TINGA Chairperson 2008 Bar Examination Committee |
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PLEASE CHECK THE NUMBER OF PAGES IN THIS SET
I Lani filed an action for partition and accounting in the Regional Trial Court (RTC) of Manila against her sister Mary Rose, who is a resident of Singapore and is not found in the Philippines. Upon motion, the court ordered the publication of the summons for three weeks in a local tabloid, Bulgar. Linda, an OFW vacationing in the Philippines, saw the summons in Bulgar and brought a copy of the tabloid when she returned to Singapore. Linda showed the tabloid and the page containing the summons to Mary Rose, who said, “Yes I know, my kumare Anita scanned and e-mailed that page of Bulgar to me!” Did the court acquire jurisdiction over Mary Rose? (4%) II Fe filed a suit for collection of P387,000 against Ramon in the RTC of Davao City. Aside from alleging payment as a defense, Ramon in his answer set up counterclaims for P100,000 as damages and P30,000 as attorney’s fees as a result of the baseless filing of the complaint, as well as for P250,000 as the balance of the purchase price of the 30 units of air conditioners he sold to Fe.
III
IV Filomeno brought an action in the Metropolitan Trial Court (MeTC) of Pasay City against Marcelino pleading two causes of action. The first was a demand for the recovery of physical possession of a parcel of land situated in Pasay City with an assessed value of P40,000; the second was a claim for damages of P500,000 for Marcelino’s unlawful retention of the property. Marcelino filed a motion to dismiss on the ground that the total amount involved, which is P540,000, is beyond the jurisdiction of the MeTC. Is Marcelino correct? (4%) V Within the period for filing a responsive pleading, the defendant filed a motion for bill of particulars that he set for hearing on a certain date. However, the defendant was surprised to find on the date set for hearing that the trial court had already denied the motion on the day of its filing, stating that the allegations of the complaint were sufficiently made.
VI After his properties were attached, defendant Porfirio filed a sufficient counterbond. The trial court discharged the attachment. Nonetheless, Porfirio suffered substantial prejudice due to the unwarranted attachment. In the end, the trial court rendered a judgment in Porfirio’s favor by ordering the plaintiff to pay damages because the plaintiff was not entitled to the attachment. Porfirio moved to charge the plaintiff’s attachment bond. The plaintiff and his sureties opposed the motion, claiming that the filing of the counterbond had relieved the plaintiff’s attachment bond from all liability for the damages. Rule on Porfirio’s motion. (4%) VII
VIII Bembol was charged with rape. Bembol’s father, Ramil, approached Artemon, the victim’s father, during the preliminary investigation and offered P1 Million to Artemon to settle the case. Artemon refused the offer.
IX The search warrant authorized the seizure of “undetermined quantity of shabu.” During the service of the search warrant, the raiding team also recovered a kilo of dried marijuana leaves wrapped in newsprint. The accused moved to suppress the marijuana leaves as evidence for the violation of Section 11 of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 since they were not covered by the search warrant. The State justified the seizure of the marijuana leaves under the “plain view” doctrine. There was no indication of whether the marijuana leaves were discovered and seized before or after the seizure of the shabu. If you are the judge, how would you rule on the motion to suppress? (4%) X Jose, Alberto and Romeo were charged with murder. Upon filing of the information, the RTC judge issued the warrants for their arrest. Learning of the issuance of the warrants, the three accused jointly filed a motion for reinvestigation and for the recall of the warrants of arrest. On the date set for hearing of their motion, none of the accused showed up in court for fear of being arrested. The RTC judge denied their motion because the RTC did not acquire jurisdiction over the persons of the movants. Did the RTC rule correctly? (4%) XI Arturo lent P1 Million to his friend Robert on the condition that Robert execute a promissory note for the loan and a real estate mortgage over his property located in Tagaytay City. Robert complied. In his promissory note dated September 20, 2006, Robert undertook to pay the loan within a year from its date at 12% per annum interest. In June 2007, Arturo requested Robert to pay ahead of time but the latter refused and insisted on the agreement. Arturo issued a demand letter and when Robert did not comply, Arturo filed an action to foreclose the mortgage. Robert moved to dismiss the complaint for lack of cause of action as the debt was not yet due. The resolution of the motion to dismiss was delayed because of the retirement of the judge.
XII After receiving the adverse decision rendered against his client, the defendant, Atty. Sikat duly filed a notice of appeal. For his part, the plaintiff timely filed a motion for partial new trial to seek an increase in the monetary damages awarded. The RTC instead rendered an amended decision further reducing the monetary awards. Is it necessary for Atty. Sikat to file a second notice of appeal after receiving the amended decision? (3%) XIII An heir/oppositor in a probate proceeding filed a motion to remove the administrator on the grounds of neglect of duties as administrator and absence from the country. On his part the heir/oppositor served written interrogatories to the administrator preparatory to presenting the latter as a witness. The administrator objected, insisting that the modes of discovery apply only to ordinary civil actions, not special proceedings. Rule on the matter. (4%) XIV On August 15, 2008, Edgardo committed estafa against Petronilo in the amount of P3 Million. Petronilo brought his complaint to the National Bureau of Investigation, which found that Edgardo had visited his lawyer twice, the first time on August 14, 2008 and the second on August 16, 2008; and that both visits concerned the swindling of Petronilo. During the trial of Edgardo, the RTC issued a subpoena ad testificandum to Edgardo’s lawyer for him to testify on the conversations during their first and second meetings. May the subpoena be quashed on the ground of privileged communication? Explain fully. (4%) XV Half-brothers Roscoe and Salvio inherited from their father a vast tract of unregistered land. Roscoe succeeded in gaining possession of the parcel of land in its entirety and transferring the tax declaration thereon in his name. Roscoe sold the northern half to Bono, Salvio’s cousin. Upon learning of the sale, Salvio asked Roscoe to convey the southern half to him. Roscoe refused as he even sold one-third of the southern half along the West to Carlo. Thereupon, Salvio filed an action for the reconveyance of the southern half against Roscoe only. Carlo was not impleaded. After filing his answer, Roscoe sold the middle third of the southern half to Nina. Salvio did not amend the complaint to implead Nina. After trial, the court rendered judgment ordering Roscoe to reconvey the entire southern half to Salvio. The judgment became final and executory. A writ of execution having been issued, the Sheriff required Roscoe, Carlo and Nina to vacate the southern half and yield possession thereof to Salvio as the prevailing party. Carlo and Nina refused, contending that they are not bound by the judgment as they are not parties to the case. Is the contention tenable? Explain fully. (4%) XVI The mutilated cadaver of a woman was discovered near a creek. Due to witnesses attesting that he was the last person seen with the woman when she was still alive, Carlito was arrested within five hours after the discovery of the cadaver and brought to the police station. The crime laboratory determined that the woman had been raped. While in police custody, Carlito broke down in the presence of an assisting counsel and orally confessed to the investigator that he had raped and killed the woman, detailing the acts he had performed up to his dumping of the body near the creek. He was genuinely remorseful. During the trial, the State presented the investigator to testify on the oral confession of Carlito. Is the oral confession admissible as evidence of guilt? (4%) XVII Ben sold a parcel of land to Del with right to repurchase within one (1) year. Ben remained in possession of the property. When Ben failed to repurchase the same, title was consolidated in favor of Del. Despite demand, Ben refused to vacate the land, constraining Del to file a complaint for unlawful detainer. In his defense, Ben averred that the case should be dismissed because Del had never been in possession of the property. Is Ben correct? (4%) XVIII Domenico and Gen lived without benefit of marriage for twenty years, during which time they purchased properties together. After Domenico died without a will, Gen filed a petition for letters of administration. Domenico’s siblings opposed the same on the ground that Gen has no legal personality. Decide. (4%) XIX After Alma had started serving her sentence for violation of Batas Pambansa Blg. 22 (BP 22), she filed a petition for writ of habeas corpus, citing Vaca vs. CA where the sentence of imprisonment of a party found guilty of violation of BP 22 was reduced to a fine equal to double the amount of the check involved. She prayed that her sentence be similarly modified and that she be immediately released from detention. In the alternative, she prayed that pending determination on whether the Vaca ruling applies to her, she be allowed to post bail pursuant to Rule 102, Sec.14, which provides that if a person is lawfully imprisoned or restrained on a charge of having committed an offense not punishable by death, he may be admitted to bail in the discretion of the court. Accordingly, the trial court allowed Alma to post bail and then ordered her release. In your opinion, is the order of the trial court correct -
XX A tugboat owned by Speedy Port Service, Inc. (SPS) sank in Manila Bay while helping tow another vessel, drowning five (5) of the crew in the resulting shipwreck. At the maritime board inquiry, the four (4) survivors testified. SPS engaged Atty. Ely to defend it against potential claims and to sue the company owning the other vessel for damages to the tug. Ely obtained signed statements from the survivors. He also interviewed other persons, in some instance making memoranda. The heirs of the five (5) victims filed an action for damages against SPS. Plaintiffs’ counsel sent written interrogatories to Ely, asking whether statements of witnesses were obtained; if written, copies were to be furnished; if oral, the exact provisions were to be set forth in detail. Ely refused to comply, arguing that the documents and information asked are privileged communication. Is the contention tenable? Explain. (4%) XXI
NOTHING FOLLOWS. |
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Add comment October 1st, 2008
BAR EXAMINATION 2008: MERCANTILE LAW
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| 21 September 2008 | 8:00 A.M. – 12 Noon | |||||||
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INSTRUCTIONS This questionnaire consists of fourteen (19) numbers contained in nine (9) pages. Read each question very carefully. Answer legibly, clearly and concisely. Start each number on a separate page; an answer to a subquestion under the same number may be written continuously on the same page and on the immediately succeeding pages until completed. Do not repeat the question. You will be given credit for your knowledge of legal doctrine and for the quality of your legal reasoning. A mere “Yes” or “No” answer without any corresponding discussion will not be given any credit. HAND IN YOUR NOTEBOOK WITH THIS QUESTIONNAIRE GOOD LUCK!!! |
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| Signed DANTE O. TINGA Chairperson 2008 Bar Examination Committee |
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PLEASE CHECK THE NUMBER OF PAGES IN THIS SET
I X corporation entered into a contract with PT Contruction Corp. for the latter to construct and build a sugar mill within six (6) months. They agreed that in case of delay, PT Construction Corp. will pay X Corporation P100,000 for every day of delay. To ensure payment of the agreed amount of damages, PT Construction Corp. secured from Atlantic Bank a confirmed and irrevocable letter of credit which was accepted by X Corporation in due time. One week before the expiration of the six (6) month period, PT Construction Corp. requested for an extension of time to deliver claiming that the delay was due to the fault of X Corporation. A controversy as to the cause of the delay which involved the workmanship of the building ensued. The controversy remained unresolved. Despite the controversy, X Corporation presented a claim against Atlantic Bank by executing a draft against the letter of credit.
II Tom Cruz obtained a loan of P 1 Million from XYZ Bank to finance his purchase of 5,000 bags of fertilizer. He executed a trust receipt in favor of XYZ Bank over the 5,000 bags of fertilizer. Tom Cruz withdrew the 5,000 bags from the warehouse to be transported to Lucena City where his store was located. On the way, armed robbers took from Tom Cruz the 5,000 bags of fertilizer. Tom Cruz now claims that his obligation to pay the loan to XYZ Bank is extinguished because the loss was not due to his fault. Is Tom Cruz correct? Explain. (4%) III
IV AB Corporation drew a check for payment to XY Bank. The check was given to an officer of AB Corporation who was instructed to deliver it to XY Bank. Instead, the officer, intending to defraud the Corporation, filled up the check by making himself as the payee and delivered it to XY Bank for deposit to his personal account. AB Corporation come to know of the officer’s fraudulent act after he absconded. AB Corporation asked XY Bank to recredits its amount. XY Bank refused.
V Pancho drew a check to Bong and Gerard jointly. Bong indorsed the check and also forged Gerard’s endorsement. The payor bank paid the check and charged Pancho’s account for the amount of the check. Gerard received nothing from the payment.
VI On January 1, 2000, Antonio Rivera secured a life insurance from SOS Insurance Corp. for P1 Million with Gemma Rivera, his adopted daughter, as the beneficiary. Antonio Rivera died on March 4, 2005 and in the police investigation, it was ascertained that Gemma Rivera participated as an accessory in the killing of Antonio Rivera. Can SOS Insurance Corp. avoid liability by setting up as a defense the participation of Gemma Rivera in the killing of Antonio Rivera? Discuss with reasons. (4%) VII Terrazas de Patio Verde, a condominium building, has a value of P50 Million. The owner insured the building against fire with three (3) insurance companies for the following amounts:
VIII City Railways, Inc. (CRI) provides train services, for a fee, to commuters from Manila to Calamba, Laguna. Commuters are required to purchase tickets and then proceed to designated loading ang unloading facilities to board the train. Ricardo Santos purchased a ticket for Calamba and entered the station. While waiting, he had an altercation with the security guard of CRI leading to a fistfight. Ricardo Santos fell on the railway just as a train was entering the station. Ricardo Santos was run over by the train. He died. In the action for damages filed by the heirs of Ricardo Santos, CRI interposed lack of cause of action, contending that the mishap occurred before Ricardo Santos boarded the train and that it was not guilty of negligence. Decide.(5%) IX On October 30, 2007, M/V Pacific, a Philippine registered vessel owned by Cebu Shipping Company (CSC), sank on her voyage from Hong Kong to Manila. Empire Assurance Company (Empire) is the insurer of the lost cargoes loaded on board the vessel which were consigned to Debenhams Company. After it indemnified Debenhams, Empire as subrogee filed an action for damages against CSC.
X Nelson owned and controlled Sonnel Construction Company. Acting for the company, Nelson contracted the construction of a building. Without first installing a protective net atop the sidewalks adjoining the construction site, the company proceeded with the construction work. One day a heavy piece of lumber fell from the building. It smashed a taxicab which at that time had gone offroad and onto the sidewalk in order to avoid the traffic. The taxicab passenger died as a result.
XI
XII Pedro owns 70% of the subscribed capital stock of a company which owns an office building. Paolo and Juan own the remaining stock equally between them. Paolo also owns a security agency, a janitorial company and a catering business. In behalf of the office building company, Paolo engaged his companies to render their services to the office building. Are the service contracts valid? Explain. (4%) XIII Grand Gas Corporation, a publicity listed company, discover after extensive drilling a rich deposit of natural gas along the coast of Antique. For five (5) months, the company did not disclose the discovery so that it could quitely and cheaply acquire neighboring land and secure mining information to the Securities and Exchange Commission, all the directors and key officer of the company bought shares went up. The directors and officer sold their shares at huge profits.
XIV Ace Cruz subscribed to 100,000 shares of stock of JP Development Corporation, which has a par value of P1 per share. He paid P25,000 and promised to pay the balance before December 31, 2008. JP Development Corporation declared a cash dividend on October 15, 2008, payable on December 1, 2008.
XV Eloise, an accomplished writer, was hired by Petong to write a bimonthly newspaper column for Diario de Manila, a newly-established newspaper of which Petong was the editor-in-chief. Eloise was to be paid P1,000 for each column that was published. In the course of two months, Eloise submitted three columns which, after some slight editing, were printed in the newspaper. However, Diario de Manila proved unprofitable and closed only after two months. Due to the minimal amounts involved, eloise chose not to pursue any claim for payment from the newspaper, which was owned by New Media Enterprises. Three years later, Eloise was planning to publish an anthology of her works, and wanted to include the three columns that appeared in the Diario de Manila in her anthology. She asks for your legal advice:
XVI In 1999, Mocha Warm, an American musician, had a hit rap single called Warm Warm Honey which he himself composed and performed. The single was produced by a California record company, Galactic Records. Many noticed that some passages from Warm Warm Honey sounded eerily similar to parts Unde Hassle, a 1978 hit song by the British rock band Majesty. A copyright infringement suit was filed in the United States against Mocha Warm by Majesty. It was later settled out of court, with Majesty receiving attribution as co-author of Warm Warm Honey as well as a share in the royalties. By 2002, Mocha Warm was nearing bankruptcy and he sold his economic rights over Warm Warm Honey to Galactic Records for $10,000 In 2008, Planet Films a Filipino movie producing company, commissioned DJ Chef Jean, a Filipino musician, to produce an original re-mix of Warm Warm Honey for use in one of its latest films, Astig!. DJ Chef Jean remixed Warm Warm Honey with salsa beat and interspersed as well a recital of a poetic stanza by John Blake, a 17th century Scottish poet. DJ Chef Jean died shortly after submitting the remixed Warm Warm Honey to Planet Films. Prior to the release of Astig!, Mocha Warm learns of the remixed Warm Warm Honey and demands that he be publicity identified as the author of the remixed song in all the CD covers and publicity releases of Planet Films.
XVII On January 1, 2008, Al obtained a loan of P10,000 from Bob to be paid on January 30,2008, secured by a chattel mortgage on a Toyota motor car. On February 1, 2008, Al obtained another loan of P10,000 from Bob to be paid on February 15, 2008. he secured this by executing a chattel mortgage on a Honda motorcycle. On the due date of the first loan Al failed to pay. Bob foreclosed the chattel mortgage but the car was bidded for P6,000 only. Al also failed to pay the second loan due on February 15, 2008. Bob filed an action for collection of sum money. Al filed a motion to dismiss claiming that Bob should first cforeclosed the mortgage on the Honda motorcycle before he can file the action for sum of money. Decide with reasons. (4%) XVIII
XIX Industry Bank, which has a net worth of P1 Billion, extended a loan to Celestial Properties Inc. amounting to P270 Million. The loan was secured by a mortgage over a vast commercial lot in the Fort Bonifacio Global City, appraised at P350 Million. After audit, the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas gave notice that the loan to Celestial Properties exceeded the single borrower’s limit of 25% of the bank’s net worth under a recent BSP Circular. In light of other previous similar violations of the credit limit requirement, the BSP advised Industry Bank to reduce the amount of the loan to Celestial Properties under pain of severe sanctions. When Industry Bank informed Celestial Properties that it intended to reduce the loan by P50 Million, Celestial Properties countered that the bank should first release a part of the collateral worth P50 Million. Industry Bank rejected the counter-proposal, and reffered the matter to you as counsel. How would you advise Industry Bank to proceed, with its best interest in mind? (5%) NOTHING FOLLOWS. |
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Add comment September 23rd, 2008
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